Series 3 Hedging and Options Sample Questions

Try 10 Series 3 Hedging and Options sample questions with explanations, then continue with the full Securities Prep practice test.

Series 3 Hedging and Options questions help you isolate one part of the NFA outline before returning to a mixed practice test. The questions below are original Securities Prep practice items aligned to this topic and are not copied from any exam sponsor.

Topic snapshot

ItemDetail
ExamNFA Series 3
Official topicPart 1C - Hedging, Spreads, Speculation, and Options Strategies
Blueprint weighting24%
Questions on this page10

Sample questions

Question 1

A customer speculates by buying 2 NYMEX WTI crude oil futures contracts at 74.20 and later offsetting the position by selling at 75.05. The contract size is 1,000 barrels, and prices are quoted in dollars per barrel. Ignore commissions and fees.

Which statement about the trade’s gross profit/loss is INCORRECT?

  • A. The gross profit on the trade is $1,700.
  • B. The profit per contract is $850.
  • C. The gross profit is $850 because you divide by 2 contracts.
  • D. A 0.01 price move is worth $10 per contract.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Total futures P/L is the price change times contract size times number of contracts, so two contracts doubles (not halves) the dollar result.

For a futures trade, gross P/L equals the price change (exit minus entry) multiplied by the contract size and the number of contracts. Here the price rises by 0.85 per barrel, which produces a profit per contract of 0.85 \(\times\) 1,000 = $850. With 2 contracts, the total gross profit is $1,700.

Gross futures P/L is computed from the quoted price move, scaled by the contract size and the number of contracts. Because the customer is long, a higher offsetting sale price creates a profit.

\[ \begin{aligned} \Delta P &= 75.05 - 74.20 = 0.85\text{ per barrel}\\ \text{P/L per contract} &= 0.85 \times 1{,}000 = USD 850\\ \text{Total P/L} &= USD 850 \times 2 = USD 1{,}700 \end{aligned} \]

A common mistake is forgetting to multiply by the number of contracts (or incorrectly dividing by it).

  • The statement that the trade made $1,700 matches \(0.85\times 1{,}000\times 2\).
  • The per-contract profit of $850 correctly applies the 0.85 move to 1,000 barrels.
  • The $10-per-0.01 move is consistent with \(0.01\times 1{,}000\) per contract.
  • Dividing by 2 contracts is the wrong scaling; more contracts increase total P/L.

Question 2

Which statement best describes a calendar spread in options on futures and what primarily drives changes in its value over time?

  • A. Buying and selling same-strike options with different expirations; value is driven mainly by differing time decay (theta) across expirations
  • B. Buying calls and selling puts in the same expiration; value is driven mainly by interest rates and futures carry
  • C. Buying and selling options with different expirations and different strikes; value is driven mainly by intrinsic value changes in the near-term option
  • D. Buying and selling the same expiration at different strikes; value is driven mainly by changes in volatility skew across strikes

Best answer: A

Explanation: A calendar spread is same strike/different expiration, and its P/L is dominated by how fast each option’s time value erodes.

A calendar spread (time spread) in options on futures uses the same strike but different expirations—typically long the deferred option and short the nearby option. Because both legs reference the same underlying futures, the position’s value is primarily affected by the difference in time-value decay between the two expirations, along with changes in implied volatility by term.

A calendar spread in options on futures is created by buying one option and selling another option on the same underlying futures contract with the same strike price but different expiration months (a “time spread”). The spread’s value is largely the net time value between the two options.

As time passes, the nearby option generally loses time value faster than the deferred option. Therefore, many calendar spreads are structured to benefit when the short, near-term option’s time decay outpaces the long, longer-dated option’s time decay. A secondary driver is term structure of implied volatility (near vs. deferred IV), but the defining high-level driver is the different theta across expirations.

In contrast, vertical spreads are defined by different strikes within the same expiration.

  • The different-strike/same-expiration description is a vertical (price) spread, not a calendar spread.
  • Combining calls and puts in the same expiration describes strategies like synthetic futures or risk reversals, not a calendar spread.
  • Using different strikes and different expirations is a diagonal spread; it is not the standard calendar spread definition.

Question 3

A retail customer tells an AP at an FCM that geopolitical disruptions could sharply reduce near-term crude oil supply, and he wants a bullish trade for the next 3 months. He wants a defined maximum loss and does not want to face futures variation margin calls. To lower the upfront premium, he is willing to cap his upside above a target price. Which trade best meets these constraints?

  • A. Buy a 3-month crude oil call and sell a higher-strike call
  • B. Sell a 3-month crude oil put option
  • C. Buy a 3-month crude oil put and sell a lower-strike put
  • D. Buy a 3-month crude oil futures contract

Best answer: A

Explanation: A bull call spread is bullish with limited risk (net premium) and reduced cost, but caps upside above the short strike.

The customer is bullish but requires defined risk and wants to avoid futures margin calls, which points to using options rather than a futures position. Because he also wants to reduce premium and is willing to cap gains, a bull call spread (long call financed by a short higher-strike call) best matches the stated trade-offs.

This is a trade-construction question: match the market view (bullish crude oil) and the customer’s constraints (defined maximum loss, avoid futures variation margin calls, reduce premium, willing to cap upside). A long futures position is bullish but has potentially large losses and daily variation margin. Option spreads can define risk and use the premium received from the short option to reduce the net premium paid.

A bull call spread fits:

  • Buy a call to gain upside exposure if futures rise
  • Sell a higher-strike call to collect premium and lower cost
  • Maximum loss is the net premium paid
  • Upside is capped above the short strike, which the customer accepts

Compared with buying a call outright, the spread better satisfies the “lower premium” constraint.

  • Buying a futures contract is bullish but can generate large losses and daily variation margin calls.
  • Selling a put is bullish to neutral but has substantial downside risk and typically requires margin.
  • A put spread is a bearish strategy that benefits from falling prices, not a supply-driven rally.

Question 4

An AP shows a customer the following quote snapshot for CME 3‑Month SOFR futures. The contract convention is:

  • Futures price = 100 − implied annualized 3‑month SOFR

Exhibit: SOFR futures quotes

Contract monthFutures price
June95.60
December94.90

Based on these quotes, by approximately how many basis points is the market implying 3‑month SOFR will change from June to December? (Round to the nearest 1bp.)

  • A. Increase of 170bp
  • B. Decrease of 70bp
  • C. Increase of 70bp
  • D. Increase of 7bp

Best answer: C

Explanation: June implies 4.40% and December implies 5.10%, a rise of 0.70% (70bp).

Convert each futures price to an implied short-term rate using 100 minus price. The lower December futures price implies a higher expected 3‑month SOFR than June, so the market is pricing higher short-term rates later in time by the difference between those implied rates.

This question tests reading the term structure of short-term rates from SOFR futures. Because the quoted price equals 100 minus the implied annualized 3-month SOFR, a lower futures price means a higher implied rate.

  • June implied rate: \(100 - 95.60 = 4.40\%\)
  • December implied rate: \(100 - 94.90 = 5.10\%\)
  • Change: \(5.10\% - 4.40\% = 0.70\% = 70\text{bp}\)

The key takeaway is that the futures curve here implies rising expected short-term rates over time (an upward-sloping expected short-rate term structure).

  • The 7bp choice comes from misreading 0.70% as 0.07%.
  • The decrease choice gets the sign backwards; the lower deferred price implies a higher deferred rate.
  • The 170bp choice reflects an arithmetic slip when converting prices into rates or taking the difference.

Question 5

A registered AP at an IB reviews a new customer’s futures account after the customer calls to complain about “constant in-and-out trading” and high commissions. The account is non-discretionary and lists the objective as “moderate growth with limited risk.”

Exhibit: Last 30 days (account summary)

Net liquidating value: $25,000
Round-turn futures trades: 120
Commissions and fees: $9,000

The AP suspects the trading pattern may constitute churning. What is the best next step?

  • A. Escalate the red flag to a supervisor/compliance and document an internal review
  • B. File a formal complaint directly with the CFTC before notifying firm supervision
  • C. Immediately enter offsetting trades to reduce the customer’s market exposure
  • D. Continue taking orders as requested and mail another risk disclosure statement

Best answer: A

Explanation: Potential churning is a serious sales-practice red flag and should be promptly documented and escalated for supervisory review before further solicitations continue.

Churning is excessive trading designed to generate commissions and creates significant regulatory exposure for both the individual and the firm. When a churning red flag appears, the proper sequence is to document it and escalate it to supervisory/compliance personnel for investigation and appropriate restrictions. This supports required supervision and helps prevent further potentially abusive trading.

The core issue is a potential sales-practice abuse: churning (excessive trading to generate commissions). Even in a non-discretionary account, an AP can create churning exposure through frequent solicitations that effectively control the trading and produce a commission-heavy pattern inconsistent with the customer’s stated objectives.

When a red flag appears (for example, very high round-turn volume and commissions relative to account equity plus a customer complaint), the appropriate process is to:

  • Document the complaint and the observed activity
  • Promptly notify the designated supervisor/compliance
  • Initiate an internal review (trade rationales, communications, suitability, compensation incentives)

Taking corrective trading action or jumping directly to regulators is not the first step; supervision and investigation come first so the firm can address and, if needed, stop the problematic conduct.

  • Continuing to accept and solicit trades while merely re-sending disclosures does not address the abusive-trading red flag.
  • Entering offsetting trades is unauthorized trading and can create additional violations.
  • Going straight to the CFTC skips the firm’s required supervisory/escalation process and is premature for an AP.

Question 6

A customer wants to trade a corn futures calendar spread to reduce exposure to the overall direction of corn prices. The spread is currently quoted as December minus July = 20 cents/bushel. She expects the December–July price difference to narrow to about 10 cents and enters: long 1 July corn futures and short 1 December corn futures.

Which risk/limitation matters most for whether this spread trade makes or loses money?

  • A. The trade eliminates margin requirements because the long and short offset
  • B. The trade’s P/L depends on how the December–July price difference changes
  • C. The trade is primarily exposed to outright corn price direction risk
  • D. The main risk is being forced into physical delivery on the short leg

Best answer: B

Explanation: A futures spread profits when the price differential between the two legs moves in the expected direction, regardless of whether both futures prices rise or fall.

A futures spread is a combined position in two related futures (different months or different but related contracts). Because one leg is long and the other is short, the key driver of profit or loss is the change in the price difference (the spread) between the two legs. If the spread widens instead of narrows, the position can lose money even if corn prices move as expected overall.

A futures spread is a two-legged futures position designed to trade the relative value between the legs (for example, an intermonth/calendar spread such as July vs. December corn). In a spread, one leg is long and the other is short, so much of the outright price movement can offset.

What matters for P/L is the change in the spread (the price differential) from entry to exit:

  • If the differential moves in the anticipated direction (here, December–July narrows), the spread gains.
  • If the differential moves the other way (widens), the spread loses.

The key limitation is that being “right” about general price direction is not enough; the relative move between months is what determines the outcome.

  • Outright direction risk is typically reduced (not eliminated) because gains on one leg tend to offset losses on the other.
  • Spreads still require margin, even if exchanges often grant spread margin treatment.
  • Delivery risk is usually managed by closing/rolling before first notice day; it is not the defining risk driver of spread P/L.

Question 7

A farmer expects to sell 50,000 bushels of corn in October and wants to hedge using December corn futures. On June 1, the local cash bid is $5.60/bu and December futures are $5.80/bu.

The AP sells 5 December corn futures contracts, mistakenly believing each contract is for 10,000 bushels (the actual contract size is 5,000 bushels).

In October, the farmer sells corn at a local cash price of $5.20/bu and offsets the futures at $5.40/bu. Assume the basis is unchanged and ignore commissions.

What is the most likely outcome of this hedging error on the farmer’s net price?

  • A. Net price about $5.80/bu; futures gain adds $0.60/bu to cash
  • B. Net price about $5.20/bu; futures gain does not affect net price
  • C. Net price about $5.60/bu; hedge locks in June cash price
  • D. Net price about $5.40/bu; hedge is only half sized

Best answer: D

Explanation: Selling only 5 contracts hedges 25,000 of 50,000 bushels, so the $0.40 futures gain adds only $0.20/bu to the cash sale.

Because the AP used the wrong contract size, the farmer is underhedged: 5 contracts cover only 25,000 bushels, not 50,000. The futures position gains $0.40/bu, but that gain applies to only half the crop, adding $0.20/bu to the $5.20 cash sale. The result is a net price of about $5.40/bu instead of the fully hedged net price.

This is a contract-size (hedge-ratio) error. A short futures hedge improves the net sale price when prices fall because the futures position gains, but the gain only applies to the quantity actually hedged.

  • Actual quantity hedged: \(5 \times 5{,}000 = 25{,}000\) bushels
  • Hedge ratio: \(25{,}000/50{,}000 = 0.5\)
  • Futures gain: \(5.80 - 5.40 = 0.40\) per bushel
  • Net price: cash sale \(+\) (hedge ratio \(\times\) futures gain)
\[ \begin{aligned} \text{Net} &= 5.20 + (0.5 \times 0.40)\\ &= 5.20 + 0.20 = 5.40\ \text{per bu} \end{aligned} \]

If the farmer had sold 10 contracts, the unchanged basis would have produced about $5.60/bu, but the undersized hedge leaves half the crop exposed to the price drop.

  • The choice implying $5.60/bu assumes the correct hedge quantity (10 contracts), not the undersized hedge placed.
  • The choice implying $5.20/bu ignores that a short futures position gains when futures prices decline.
  • The choice implying $5.80/bu effectively applies the futures gain to more than 100% of the crop (overhedging) or miscalculates the price change.

Question 8

A customer speculates by going long 2 WTI crude oil futures contracts at 78.40 and later offsets the position by selling 2 contracts at 79.15. The contract size is 1,000 barrels per contract. Ignoring commissions and fees, which option correctly matches the trade’s gross result? (All amounts are in USD.)

  • A. Gross profit of $15,000
  • B. Gross profit of $1,500
  • C. Gross loss of $1,500
  • D. Gross profit of $750

Best answer: B

Explanation: The price increased by 0.75, so profit is \(0.75 \times 1{,}000 \times 2 = \) $1,500.

For a long futures position, gross profit equals the price increase times the contract size times the number of contracts. Here the futures price rises from 78.40 to 79.15, a gain of 0.75 per barrel. Multiplying by 1,000 barrels per contract and 2 contracts gives a $1,500 gross profit.

Gross P/L on a futures trade is driven by (1) whether the trader is long or short, (2) the price change, (3) the contract size, and (4) the number of contracts. Because the customer is long, a price increase creates a profit.

Compute the result:

\[ \begin{aligned} \text{Price change} &= 79.15 - 78.40 = 0.75 \\ \text{Profit} &= 0.75 \times 1{,}000 \times 2 = 1{,}500 \end{aligned} \]

Key takeaway: always scale the per-unit price move by both the contract size and the number of contracts, then apply the correct sign for long vs short.

  • The $750 profit result ignores that the customer traded 2 contracts.
  • The $1,500 loss result reverses the sign; a long position benefits from rising prices.
  • The $15,000 profit result overstates the contract-size impact (misplaced decimal/factor of 10).

Question 9

A cattle feeder expects to sell 40,000 lb of live cattle in 2 months and wants to reduce price risk. Live cattle futures are 10,000 lb per contract; all prices are in cents per lb.

At hedge initiation:

  • Local cash price: 176.00
  • Futures price: 180.00

At sale (hedge lifted the same day as the cash sale):

  • Local cash price: 170.00
  • Futures price: 172.00

The feeder sells 4 futures contracts at initiation and buys them back at sale. Which statement best describes the hedge outcome and the role of basis risk?

  • A. Net price is guaranteed to be 180.00 with a short hedge
  • B. Net price is about 178.00; basis strengthened vs expected
  • C. Basis risk is eliminated because cattle are non-storable
  • D. Net price is about 166.00 because futures fell

Best answer: B

Explanation: The short futures gain (180.00 − 172.00 = 8.00) offsets the cash drop, and the net differs from expectations because basis changed.

With a short hedge, the cash sale price is combined with the futures gain or loss to estimate a net price. Here, the feeder gains 8.00 cents in futures, so the net is approximately 170.00 + 8.00 = 178.00 cents per lb. Any difference between the net price and what was anticipated at hedge initiation is driven by basis risk (basis changing over time).

A short hedge is designed to offset a decline in the cash price by taking an opposite position in futures. The net price received is approximated as:

  • Net price  final cash price + futures gain (or − futures loss)
  • For a short hedge, futures gain occurs when futures prices fall

Here, the feeder sold futures at 180.00 and bought them back at 172.00, for an 8.00-cent gain. Adding that gain to the 170.00-cent cash sale price gives a net of about 178.00 cents per lb. Basis risk remains because the basis (cash − futures) can change between hedge initiation and hedge lifting; in this case basis moved from −4.00 to −2.00 (strengthened), improving the net relative to what a constant basis would imply.

  • The idea that a short hedge guarantees the initial futures price ignores that basis can change.
  • The claim that non-storable commodities eliminate basis risk is backward; basis can be more variable.
  • The outcome is not a lower net simply because futures fell; a short futures position benefits when futures fall.

Question 10

A customer is long 10 June crude oil futures and wants to “roll” the position into September today. The customer’s main concern is avoiding leg risk (being filled on one month without the other).

Exhibit: Quote board (calendar spread is Near − Far, in USD per barrel)

CL Jun 2026         78.40 x 120    78.42 x 95
CL Sep 2026         77.90 x 110    77.92 x 80
Jun/Sep spread      +0.48 x 60     +0.52 x 55

Based on the exhibit, which order approach is most consistent with the customer’s objective?

  • A. Enter a Jun/Sep calendar spread order: Buy Jun and sell Sep
  • B. Enter two separate market orders: sell Jun, then buy Sep
  • C. Enter two separate limit orders at the displayed bid/ask: sell Jun at 78.40 and buy Sep at 77.92
  • D. Enter a Jun/Sep calendar spread order: Sell Jun and buy Sep

Best answer: D

Explanation: A spread order executes as a single package at the quoted spread, minimizing leg risk versus working two separate outright orders.

The quote board shows a tradable Jun/Sep calendar spread market, quoted as Near minus Far. Using a spread order routes the roll as one spread transaction (selling June and buying September) and is designed to reduce the risk of getting filled on only one leg compared with entering two separate outright orders.

A calendar spread quote represents a market for executing both legs together at a single spread price (here, June minus September). Because the customer is rolling a long June position into September, the customer needs to sell the near month (June) and buy the far month (September), which is a sale of the Jun/Sep spread.

Using a spread order targets the exchange’s spread book (and any implied liquidity) so the trade is treated as one package:

  • Sell June
  • Buy September
  • Receive/pay the displayed spread price

This approach is the standard way to reduce leg risk compared with placing two separate outright orders that can fill at different times and prices.

  • Two separate market orders can leave the customer exposed if one leg fills and the other doesn’t.
  • Buying June and selling September increases the existing June long instead of rolling it.
  • Two separate limit orders still create leg risk because each month can fill independently.

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Revised on Friday, May 1, 2026