Series 66: Laws and Ethics

Try 10 focused Series 66 questions on Laws and Ethics, with explanations, then continue with the full Securities Prep practice test.

Series 66 Laws and Ethics questions help you isolate one part of the NASAA outline before returning to a mixed practice test. The questions below are original Securities Prep practice items aligned to this topic and are not copied from any exam sponsor.

Open the matching Securities Prep practice route for timed mocks, topic drills, progress tracking, explanations, and the full question bank.

Topic snapshot

ItemDetail
ExamNASAA Series 66
Official topicTopic IV - Laws, Regulations, and Guidelines Including Prohibition on Unethical Business Practice
Blueprint weighting45%
Questions on this page10

Sample questions

Question 1

A state-registered investment adviser gives a prospective client its Form ADV Part 2A brochure. The brochure discloses this annual fee schedule: 0.90% on the first $250,000 of assets under management and 0.70% on amounts over $250,000.

If the client plans to place $200,000 under management, which statement best reflects the annual fee disclosed for that client and the high-level purpose of Form ADV?

  • A. About $2,250 per year; Form ADV is a broker-dealer filing used to satisfy net capital rules
  • B. About $1,500 per year; Form ADV is mainly an account statement and performance reporting document
  • C. About $1,800 per year; Form ADV is the adviser’s registration/disclosure filing used to communicate fees and conflicts to clients and regulators
  • D. About $1,400 per year; Form ADV is only used to register securities offerings with the administrator

Best answer: C

Explanation: $200,000 is entirely in the 0.90% tier ($200,000 \(\times\) 0.009 = $1,800), and Form ADV serves as the adviser’s required registration and disclosure document.

Because $200,000 is below the $250,000 breakpoint, the disclosed annual fee is 0.90% of $200,000, or about $1,800. Form ADV is the investment adviser’s required registration/disclosure filing (including the brochure) that helps clients and regulators understand the adviser’s services, fees, and conflicts.

Form ADV is the core registration and disclosure document for an investment adviser. It is filed (through the IARD system) and includes narrative disclosure in the brochure (Part 2A) that clients use to evaluate the adviser’s services, fees, and conflicts of interest.

Applying the disclosed schedule to $200,000:

  • All $200,000 is in the first tier (up to $250,000).
  • Annual fee = $200,000 \(\times\) 0.90%.
\[ \begin{aligned} \text{Fee} &= 200{,}000 \times 0.009 \\ &= 1{,}800 \end{aligned} \]

The key takeaway is that Form ADV is used for adviser registration and client/regulatory disclosure, not for securities offering registration or broker-dealer capital reporting.

  • The $1,500 figure comes from using a different 0.75% rate that is not the brochure’s disclosed schedule.
  • The $1,400 figure incorrectly applies the 0.70% tier even though assets do not exceed $250,000.
  • The $2,250 figure incorrectly charges 0.90% on $250,000 rather than on the client’s $200,000.

Question 2

An investment adviser posts a social media ad for a new quantitative strategy. The ad includes a chart labeled “Back-tested results (2014–2023)” and states, “This strategy would have returned 18% annually with lower volatility than the S&P 500.” The strategy has been offered to clients only since January 2024 and has a short live track record.

Which additional action best complies with broad fiduciary and fair-disclosure standards when using this back-tested performance in the ad?

  • A. Clearly label results as hypothetical, describe key assumptions/limitations, and avoid implying the returns were actually achieved
  • B. Include the firm’s live performance since January 2024 without mentioning that the ad used back-tested data
  • C. Add a statement that “past performance is not a guarantee of future results”
  • D. Remove the chart but keep the 18% annual return claim in the text

Best answer: A

Explanation: Hypothetical/back-tested results must be presented with prominent, balanced disclosure to prevent them from being misleading.

Back-tested performance is hypothetical and can be misleading because it may reflect assumptions, model choices, and market data that were not available or not used in real time. A compliant approach is to make the hypothetical nature prominent and provide balanced disclosures about how the results were produced and their limitations. The communication must also avoid suggesting the returns were actually achieved by clients.

Back-tested (hypothetical) performance can mislead because it is produced by applying a model to historical data with the benefit of hindsight; results can be highly sensitive to assumptions (inputs, rebalancing rules, transaction costs, survivorship bias, curve-fitting). Under broad standards requiring fair and non-misleading communications, an adviser that uses hypothetical performance should implement controls and disclosures designed to prevent overstatement.

High-level expectations include:

  • Prominent labeling that results are hypothetical/back-tested
  • Balanced discussion of key assumptions, material limitations, and that results were not actually achieved
  • Internal review/approval and recordkeeping for the basis of claims

The key takeaway is that a generic caution alone is not enough if the overall message could still imply real, achieved performance.

  • Adding only “past performance is not a guarantee” is typically insufficient because it does not address the hypothetical nature and assumptions behind back-tested results.
  • Dropping the chart but keeping the return claim still communicates potentially misleading hypothetical performance without context.
  • Showing only live performance while omitting that the ad relied on back-tested results fails to provide fair, balanced disclosure about what the highlighted results represent.

Question 3

An investment adviser representative (IAR) is paid a higher bonus for bringing in clients who enroll in the firm’s managed account program, which uses proprietary model portfolios. She posts on social media: “Get truly independent advice—no incentives, no hidden compensation. Our model has a proven track record of outperforming the market.” She wants to boost the post using the firm’s advertising budget.

What is the primary ethical/compliance risk that must be addressed before this communication is used as an advertisement?

  • A. It is misleading because it omits and misstates material compensation conflicts and makes an unsubstantiated performance claim
  • B. It is prohibited because investment advisers may not use social media for advertising
  • C. It is noncompliant because advertisements must be filed with the state Administrator before use
  • D. It is misleading only if it fails to list every security held in the model portfolios

Best answer: A

Explanation: Advertising must be fair and balanced, disclose material conflicts, and avoid promissory or unsubstantiated performance claims.

The post presents the IAR as having “no incentives” while she is paid more for enrolling clients in a specific program, which is a material conflict that must be disclosed and not mischaracterized. It also claims outperformance without providing a reasonable basis and appropriate, non-misleading presentation. Under general advertising principles, both conflict disclosure and claim substantiation are core requirements.

Advertising by an investment adviser must be fair and balanced and must not omit material facts needed to make the statements not misleading. Here, the IAR’s higher bonus for enrolling clients in a proprietary managed program is a material compensation incentive; stating “no incentives” and “no hidden compensation” is a misrepresentation and an omission of a conflict that a client would consider important. In addition, claiming a “proven track record of outperforming the market” requires substantiation and presentation that is not cherry-picked or promissory. The communication should be revised to accurately describe compensation arrangements and conflicts, and any performance-related claim should have a reasonable basis with clear, non-misleading disclosures.

  • The idea that advisers cannot advertise on social media is incorrect; the same anti-fraud advertising standards apply regardless of medium.
  • Routine pre-filing of advertisements with a state Administrator is not a general requirement for investment advisers.
  • Listing every security in a model is not a general advertising requirement, though the communication still must not be misleading about what is being offered.

Question 4

An investment adviser plans to run a social media ad for a new quantitative strategy that shows a chart of “10-year back-tested performance” and a prominent “hypothetical annualized return” figure. The ad is intended for retail investors and will link to an account-opening page, so the firm wants to reduce the chance the presentation misleads while keeping the ad short.

Which compliance decision best satisfies these constraints?

  • A. State that results are based on “proprietary models” and omit details to avoid overload
  • B. Present only the back-tested annualized return, without the chart, to reduce confusion
  • C. Require prominent hypothetical/back-tested disclosures and internal review controls
  • D. Include a disclaimer that past performance is not indicative of future results

Best answer: C

Explanation: Hypothetical performance is easily misleading, so clear, prominent disclosures plus pre-use review and support for assumptions are generally expected controls.

Back-tested or hypothetical performance can overstate what an investor could have achieved because it may rely on assumptions, benefit from hindsight, and ignore real-world frictions. A retail-facing social media ad that links to account opening should therefore pair any hypothetical results with prominent disclosures that explain the limitations and key assumptions. Firms are also expected to implement controls such as pre-use review and retention of the basis for calculations.

The core risk with hypothetical/back-tested performance is that it can look like real, attainable results even though it may be built using hindsight, optimized inputs, selective time periods, and assumptions about trading, costs, taxes, liquidity, and execution. Because those features can materially change outcomes, advisers generally should not treat a simple legend as enough—especially in a short-form, retail-facing ad designed to drive account opening.

A high-level, reasonable approach includes:

  • Clear, prominent labeling that results are hypothetical/back-tested
  • Plain-language limitations and key assumptions (e.g., fees, transaction costs, rebalancing)
  • Policies and pre-use review to ensure the presentation is fair and balanced
  • Workpapers/records supporting the calculation and the basis for assumptions

A generic “past performance” disclaimer alone does not address why hypothetical results can be misleading.

  • The option relying only on a generic “past performance” disclaimer fails to address the special limitations of hypothetical/back-tested results.
  • The option removing the chart but keeping a headline hypothetical return still presents potentially misleading performance without the needed context.
  • The option citing “proprietary models” while omitting assumptions reduces transparency and increases the risk investors infer the results are readily achievable.

Question 5

A state-registered investment adviser receives a written notice from the state securities Administrator stating the office is conducting an investigation. The notice requests specific client account records and asks the firm’s investment adviser representative to appear for on-the-record testimony next month.

What is the best next step for the firm’s chief compliance officer?

  • A. Acknowledge the notice, preserve the requested records, and coordinate production and testimony
  • B. Provide only marketing materials and decline to produce client records due to privacy concerns
  • C. Instruct the representative not to appear unless the Administrator first files a formal complaint
  • D. Refuse to respond unless the Administrator first obtains a court order

Best answer: A

Explanation: In an Administrator investigation, the firm must cooperate with records requests and testimony and should preserve and produce responsive materials.

State Administrators have broad investigative tools, including requiring records and compelling testimony. When an investigation notice requests documents and on-the-record testimony, the appropriate compliance workflow is to preserve responsive records and cooperate with the request (often coordinating through compliance counsel). Obstructing, delaying, or conditioning cooperation on a court case is inconsistent with the duty to cooperate.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, a state securities Administrator can investigate potential violations by using tools such as records requests (inspection/production), subpoenas, and compelling testimony under oath. When a firm receives a written investigative request, the compliance priority is to preserve and produce responsive records and to make requested personnel available for testimony, while coordinating internally (and with counsel) to ensure the response is complete and accurate. The Administrator does not need to file a formal complaint before seeking documents or testimony in an investigation. The key takeaway is to cooperate and avoid any action that could be viewed as obstruction or an unethical business practice.

  • Waiting for a court order is the wrong sequence; investigations can include compulsory process without a pending court case.
  • Client “privacy” does not let an adviser withhold required books and records from the regulator.
  • A formal complaint is not required before the Administrator can request records or require testimony.

Question 6

A state securities Administrator is investigating an investment adviser for suspected misappropriation of client funds and falsified account statements. Which of the following actions is NOT within the Administrator’s authority under the Uniform Securities Act?

  • A. Seeking a court injunction to stop the alleged conduct
  • B. Filing criminal charges directly against the adviser
  • C. Coordinating with law enforcement while conducting an investigation
  • D. Referring the matter to the state attorney general or other prosecutor

Best answer: B

Explanation: Criminal prosecution is brought by the courts through the appropriate prosecutor, not by the Administrator.

Administrators have broad civil and investigative powers, including investigating suspected violations, seeking court orders to halt misconduct, and working with prosecutors and law enforcement. However, the Administrator does not personally prosecute crimes. Criminal cases are pursued by the appropriate prosecuting authority in court based on the evidence gathered.

Under the Uniform Securities Act, a state securities Administrator can investigate potential violations (including compelling testimony/records), take administrative actions, and go to court to seek remedies such as an injunction to stop ongoing misconduct. When facts suggest criminal wrongdoing, the Administrator can refer the case and cooperate with the state attorney general, district attorney, or other law enforcement agencies. The key distinction is that the Administrator is a securities regulator with civil/administrative enforcement tools and access to the courts, but criminal prosecution itself is handled by the criminal justice system through the appropriate prosecutor and the courts.

  • Seeking an injunction is a common way to obtain a court order to halt suspected violations.
  • Referring a case to a prosecutor is how potential criminal violations are pursued.
  • Coordinating with law enforcement is consistent with investigating and building a criminal referral.

Question 7

In the context of civil liability under state securities law, what does the term “statute of limitations” refer to?

  • A. The period an investment adviser must keep required books and records
  • B. A limit on the dollar amount of damages a plaintiff may recover
  • C. The time a security’s registration remains effective before renewal is required
  • D. A time limit for filing a legal action, after which the claim is barred

Best answer: D

Explanation: It sets the outside window to sue (often tied to the sale or discovery of the violation), and missing it can eliminate the remedy.

A statute of limitations is the legal deadline for bringing a civil claim. It matters because even a strong case can be dismissed if filed too late. In securities cases, the clock is commonly tied to when the transaction occurred and/or when the wrongdoing was (or should have been) discovered.

The core concept is that civil remedies are not open-ended: the statute of limitations establishes how long a claimant has to start a lawsuit. Timing matters because courts can bar the action once the limitations period runs, regardless of the underlying merits. In securities-related claims, limitations rules often measure time from a triggering event such as the sale/transaction date and may also incorporate a discovery concept (when the fraud or violation was discovered or reasonably should have been discovered). The practical takeaway is that potential plaintiffs must act promptly, and registrants should understand that late-filed claims may be defensible on procedural grounds even before reaching the facts.

  • The option about limiting damages confuses a filing deadline with remedies like damage caps or rescission formulas.
  • The option about recordkeeping describes retention requirements, which are compliance obligations, not a bar to filing suit.
  • The option about registration effectiveness addresses administrative renewal/expiration, not civil claim timing.

Question 8

A retail customer alleges her broker-dealer placed unauthorized trades. The customer’s account agreement (e-signed at opening) includes a predispute clause requiring customer disputes to be resolved by arbitration.

Which dispute-resolution outcome best matches this fact pattern?

  • A. The broker-dealer must offer binding mediation before arbitration
  • B. The customer’s claim would generally be handled in binding arbitration
  • C. The state securities administrator will decide the customer’s damages claim
  • D. The customer may ignore the arbitration clause and must sue in court

Best answer: B

Explanation: A valid predispute arbitration agreement typically means the customer dispute is resolved in arbitration rather than a court trial.

Predispute arbitration clauses are commonly used in customer brokerage agreements and generally require disputes to be resolved through arbitration instead of a court trial. Arbitration is typically binding, with limited grounds to challenge an award.

Arbitration, mediation, and court actions are different paths for resolving customer disputes. When a customer has agreed in advance (in an account agreement) to arbitrate disputes with a broker-dealer, the dispute is generally directed to arbitration rather than being litigated in court. Arbitration is typically binding on the parties, and courts generally will not retry the merits of the case once an award is issued.

Mediation, by contrast, is a negotiated settlement process and is generally nonbinding unless the parties reach and sign a settlement agreement. A state securities administrator may bring enforcement actions (for example, seeking injunctions or penalties), but the administrator is not the forum that adjudicates a private customer’s damages claim like a court or arbitration panel would.

The key takeaway is that a valid arbitration agreement usually controls the dispute forum.

  • The option suggesting binding mediation confuses mediation with arbitration; mediation is typically nonbinding unless settled.
  • The option claiming the administrator decides the customer’s damages mixes enforcement remedies with private dispute resolution.
  • The option stating the customer must sue in court ignores the effect of a valid arbitration clause in the account agreement.

Question 9

A state securities Administrator’s office is triaging new investor complaints for potential enforcement referral. Which complaint is most appropriately classified as a high-priority matter because it suggests investor harm and a possible pattern of misconduct (rather than a routine service or suitability dispute)?

  • A. A client complains the firm’s call center did not return a message for two business days
  • B. Three unrelated clients say their agent instructed them to make checks payable to the agent personally for “a private note,” and account statements show no record of the investment
  • C. A client disputes the advisory fee because he did not read the fee schedule in the account-opening documents
  • D. A client says her diversified portfolio declined during a broad market selloff and wants the firm to reimburse the losses

Best answer: B

Explanation: Multiple similar complaints plus possible conversion and an unrecorded product are fraud red flags that warrant prompt enforcement triage.

Administrators prioritize complaints that indicate potential fraud, conversion, or other serious violations—especially when multiple, unrelated investors report similar conduct. Instructions to pay an agent personally for an off-book “investment,” combined with no record on statements, suggests misuse of funds and a potentially unregistered or fictitious product. That combination signals elevated investor harm and a repeatable scheme requiring enforcement attention.

Complaint intake is often triaged by looking for “red flags” that point to securities-law violations and immediate investor harm. Higher-priority referrals typically involve allegations such as misappropriation/conversion of client funds, forged or unauthorized transactions, unregistered offerings being sold to the public, false statements, or repeated complaints about the same individual or practice.

Here, multiple unrelated clients describe the same payment instruction (make checks payable to the agent personally) and there is no custodied position or statement record. That fact pattern suggests off-book activity and possible conversion or a fraudulent offering, which is the kind of misconduct an Administrator would likely escalate quickly for investigation.

  • A market-driven loss, without alleged misconduct, is generally a customer dissatisfaction issue rather than an enforcement trigger.
  • A fee dispute caused by failure to read delivered disclosures is typically handled through firm complaint resolution, not urgent enforcement triage.
  • Slow call-back/service complaints may be valid but usually do not indicate a securities-law violation or investor-funds risk.

Question 10

Which statement about a Regulation D private offering is most accurate?

  • A. It allows an issuer to generally solicit the public in all cases.
  • B. It exempts the issuer from both registration and antifraud provisions.
  • C. It requires that every purchaser be an accredited investor.
  • D. It can be exempt from SEC registration, but the securities are restricted and antifraud rules still apply.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Regulation D provides a registration exemption for certain private offerings, not an exemption from resale limits or antifraud liability.

Regulation D is a federal safe harbor that can let an issuer sell securities without registering the offering with the SEC. However, investors typically receive “restricted” securities with resale limitations, and the issuer and its representatives remain subject to federal and state antifraud standards.

Regulation D is commonly used for private placements. The key high-level point is that it is a registration exemption (or safe harbor) for the offering, not a free pass from other investor-protection rules. Securities sold in a Reg D private offering are generally “restricted,” meaning they cannot be freely resold into the public market without meeting an exemption or registration for the resale. Also, regardless of whether an offering is registered or exempt, antifraud rules apply: statements to investors must not be materially false or misleading, and material facts generally must be disclosed. Accredited investor status matters under certain Reg D pathways, but it does not mean every Reg D purchaser must be accredited and it does not eliminate antifraud obligations.

  • The claim that all Reg D offerings allow general advertising is wrong because general solicitation is permitted only under certain offering conditions.
  • The claim that every purchaser must be accredited is wrong because some Reg D offerings can include nonaccredited investors (subject to conditions).
  • The claim that Reg D eliminates antifraud liability is wrong because antifraud provisions apply to both registered and exempt offerings.

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Revised on Sunday, May 3, 2026