CPA Canada Core 1 Practice Test

Prepare for CPA Canada Core 1 with a stable, competency-mapped Finance Prep bank, 24 public sample questions, a free 75-question diagnostic, financial reporting and assurance topic drills, timed mocks, and explanations that teach professional judgment.

Start with the free CPA Canada Core 1 diagnostic or the 24 public sample questions. See how the questions blend financial reporting, assurance, tax, finance, governance, and professional judgment before you subscribe; Finance Prep then gives you a stable, competency-mapped practice bank with timed mocks, topic drills, progress tracking, and detailed explanations across web and mobile.

Core 1 practice should ask you to identify the issue, choose the relevant principle, and explain the implication clearly without turning every answer into a full case response.

Quick review: Use the Core 1 Cheat Sheet to review evidence quality, financial reporting, assurance, tax, finance, and professional-judgment traps before a timed attempt.

What Core 1 practice should test

  • recognizing the accounting, assurance, tax, finance, or governance issue in a short scenario
  • distinguishing a technical rule from the recommendation the client or manager actually needs
  • explaining uncertainty without turning every answer into a full memo
  • choosing responses that are professional, evidence-based, and proportionate

What to drill after a weak Core 1 set

Use this table after a diagnostic, timed mock, or mixed set. Core 1 misses usually come from spotting the topic but not connecting the evidence to a professional conclusion.

If your misses look like…Drill nextWhat to prove before moving on
You identify the accounting area but miss recognition, measurement, presentation, or disclosure implicationsFinancial ReportingYou can state the reporting issue, required treatment, and user impact in one short chain.
You miss engagement acceptance, evidence quality, materiality, procedures, or reporting consequencesAudit and AssuranceYou can connect the risk or finding to the procedure, evidence, or report implication.
You miss current/future tax, GST/HST awareness, owner-manager implications, or tax timingTaxationYou can explain the tax consequence and whether it affects cash tax, deferred/future tax, or disclosure.
You miss valuation, working capital, financing, FX, or risk-management reasoningFinanceYou can connect the calculation or source evidence to the decision being made.

24 CPA Canada Core 1 sample questions with detailed explanations

These are original Finance Prep practice questions aligned to the live CPA Canada Core 1 route and the main blueprint areas shown above. Use them to test readiness here, then continue in Finance Prep with mixed sets, topic drills, and timed mocks.

Question 1

Topic: Audit and Assurance

During a review engagement of Maple Components Ltd.’s ASPE financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2025, the practitioner receives a legal letter about a supplier claim filed before year end. The lawyer states that Maple is likely to lose and estimates the settlement at $180,000. Materiality is $50,000, and the draft financial statements include no accrual and only state that management disputes the claim. Which reporting action is most appropriate before the financial statements are issued?

  • A. Accrue a $180,000 liability and related loss, and update the note disclosure for the claim.
  • B. Report the matter only to the board as a review finding, with no change to the financial statements.
  • C. Take no financial statement action, because management disputes the claim.
  • D. Disclose the claim only, because no cash settlement has occurred.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Assurance findings must be connected to the required financial statement treatment. Here, the legal letter is external evidence indicating that the loss is likely and reasonably estimable, and the claim existed before year end. Under ASPE, a material contingent loss with those characteristics should be recognized as a liability and expense. Disclosure should also be updated so users understand the nature of the claim and any remaining uncertainty. Management’s disagreement does not override stronger evidence from legal counsel, and the absence of a cash payment does not prevent accrual accounting when recognition criteria are met.


Question 2

Topic: Finance

Northstar Fabrication Ltd. reports under ASPE and is preparing its December 31 financial statements. A specialized press with a carrying amount of $640,000 has a possible impairment indicator. The controller concluded that no write-down is needed because an online marketplace listing shows an asking price of $700,000 for a similar press.

Your review notes that the listed press is a newer model, has about half the usage, and is fully operational. Northstar’s press requires a $60,000 repair. An independent equipment appraiser inspected Northstar’s press on December 28 and estimated its fair value at $560,000, assuming the repair had been completed.

Which response best corrects the valuation support?

  • A. Retain the $700,000 listing because it is external market evidence.
  • B. Average the listing and appraisal to avoid relying on a single valuation source.
  • C. Replace the listing with the inspected appraisal, adjusted for the $60,000 repair assumption, and revise the write-down analysis.
  • D. Use the $560,000 appraisal without adjustment because it was prepared independently near year end.

Best answer: C

Explanation: A valuation input must be reliable and relevant to the specific asset, measurement date, condition, and financial reporting purpose. The online listing is external, but it is only an asking price for a newer, lower-use, fully operational press, so it does not reliably support Northstar’s press value. The independent appraisal is stronger because it inspected the actual asset near year end. However, its $560,000 estimate assumes a repair has already been completed, which is inconsistent with the year-end condition. The best correction is to use the appraisal as the better source, adjust it for the known repair assumption, and revise the write-down analysis accordingly.


Question 3

Topic: Financial Reporting

Kestrel Components Ltd. applies ASPE and is preparing year-end financial statements for its lender. Near year end, Kestrel issued a material five-year note payable for CAD 1,000,000. The agreement includes a fixed interest rate, detachable warrants allowing the lender to buy common shares at a fixed price, and a covenant based on the debt-to-equity ratio. Management recorded the full proceeds as a simple note payable and asked the CPA candidate to “finish the accounting without delaying for a valuation.” Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  • A. The financing should be identified as a complex transaction with potential debt/equity classification, measurement, and disclosure implications, while noting that further analysis or valuation evidence is needed before quantifying all effects.
  • B. The warrants should be measured immediately using management’s estimate so that the remaining proceeds can be reported as interest expense.
  • C. The full proceeds should remain as a note payable because the legal form of the agreement is debt and ASPE does not require further analysis of warrants.
  • D. The transaction can be ignored for year-end reporting because the covenant effect is a lender matter rather than a financial reporting matter.

Best answer: A

Explanation: A material note with detachable warrants is not a routine borrowing. The candidate should identify the presence of a complex financing transaction and consider Core 1-level implications, such as whether components require separate classification, whether additional measurement support is needed, and whether disclosure is necessary for users such as the lender. The objective is not to perform every specialized valuation step without sufficient evidence. Recording the full amount as simple debt may misstate debt, equity, interest, or covenant-related presentation, while using an unsupported estimate would also be inappropriate.


Question 4

Topic: Taxation

Astra Ltd. reports under IFRS. Its draft tax provision for the year deducted the full $60,000 warranty expense accrued for accounting purposes and recorded only current income tax payable. Tax rules allow a deduction only when warranty claims are paid; $15,000 was paid this year and the remaining $45,000 liability will be deductible next year. The enacted tax rate is 26% in both years, no opening warranty temporary difference exists, and future taxable profits are probable. What net correcting entry should Astra record?

  • A. Debit income tax expense $11,700 and credit current income tax payable $11,700.
  • B. Debit deferred tax asset $15,600 and credit current income tax payable $15,600.
  • C. Debit deferred tax asset $11,700 and credit current income tax payable $11,700.
  • D. Debit deferred tax expense $11,700 and credit deferred tax liability $11,700.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The draft tax provision incorrectly treated the full warranty accrual as currently deductible. For tax purposes, only the $15,000 paid is deductible this year, so current taxable income and current income tax payable must increase by $45,000 × 26% = $11,700. The remaining $45,000 warranty liability will be deductible when paid next year, creating a deductible temporary difference. Because future taxable profits are probable, IFRS requires a deferred tax asset of $11,700. Since the draft already reflected the warranty expense for accounting purposes, the net correction is to debit deferred tax asset and credit current tax payable for $11,700, with no net change to total income tax expense from this correction.


Question 5

Topic: Audit and Assurance

Shawn, CPA, is documenting controls at Maple Ridge Tools Ltd., a private distributor reporting under ASPE. Monthly financial statements are sent to the company’s lender. During the walkthrough, Shawn notes:

  • Goods are often received in the last week of the month, but supplier invoices may arrive one to two weeks later.
  • Accounts payable staff record supplier invoices only when the invoice is received or paid.
  • Sales invoices are generated automatically from warehouse shipping scans.
  • Bank reconciliations are prepared monthly by an accountant who does not handle cash receipts.

Which control or process issue is most likely to affect financial statement reliability?

  • A. Sales invoices are generated from shipping scans rather than customer purchase orders.
  • B. Supplier invoices are recorded when received rather than when purchase orders are approved.
  • C. Bank reconciliations are prepared monthly by someone independent of cash receipts.
  • D. Unmatched receiving reports are not reviewed at month-end to accrue goods received but not yet invoiced.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Financial statement reliability depends on processes that capture transactions in the correct period and at the correct amount. Here, goods may be received before supplier invoices arrive. If no one reviews unmatched receiving reports at month-end, Maple Ridge may fail to record inventory or expenses and the related accounts payable. This is a direct cutoff and completeness issue for monthly financial statements provided to a lender. By contrast, sales invoices based on shipping scans can be appropriate because shipment evidence supports revenue cutoff. Independent monthly bank reconciliations are a reliability-strengthening control, not a concern. Recording supplier invoices when received is not necessarily a problem if there is also a month-end accrual process for goods received but not invoiced.


Question 6

Topic: Finance

Northern Components Inc., a Canadian manufacturer with a CAD functional currency, has a signed purchase contract requiring payment of USD 1,200,000 to a U.S. supplier in 90 days. The company has no USD cash inflows. Management’s priority is to lock in the CAD cost of the purchase, not to benefit from favourable exchange-rate movements. The controller has verified the supplier contract amount and due date. What should the controller do next to support the risk-management recommendation?

  • A. Arrange a pay-fixed interest rate swap on the CAD operating line to stabilize financing costs.
  • B. Request pricing for a 90-day foreign exchange forward contract to buy USD 1,200,000 and assess the related reporting implications.
  • C. Record the payable using today’s spot rate and defer the risk-management recommendation until settlement.
  • D. Purchase commodity futures maturing in 90 days to offset input price volatility.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The exposure is a foreign exchange exposure: the company must buy USD in 90 days and has no natural USD inflows to offset the risk. Because the amount and timing are known and management wants to lock in the CAD cost, the next step is to obtain pricing for a matching foreign exchange forward contract. The forward contract would fix the exchange rate for buying USD on the payment date. The controller should also consider the accounting and disclosure implications of the derivative, but only after identifying the instrument that matches the exposure.


Question 7

Topic: Financial Reporting

Northview Fabrication Ltd. is a private Canadian company. Management wants to provide its lender with year-end tax-basis statements to save time. The lender will use the package to decide whether to renew a material operating line and assess a working-capital covenant. The draft package omits material accruals, including $310,000 of unbilled work completed before year-end and $95,000 of supplier payables. Which source best supports the conclusion that the lender package should be prepared on an ASPE accrual basis with the related fair-presentation adjustments?

  • A. The signed loan agreement and current lender request specifying ASPE financial statements and covenant calculations using accrued receivables and payables
  • B. The most recent corporate tax return and notice of assessment confirming taxable income was accepted by CRA
  • C. A management representation stating that tax-basis statements are cheaper and have been accepted informally in prior years
  • D. A bank statement and short-term cash forecast showing the company expects to meet payroll next month

Best answer: A

Explanation: The strongest support is evidence from the primary external user and the binding financing arrangement. A signed loan agreement and current lender request identify the lender’s needs, the required reporting basis, and how the covenant will be assessed. Because the draft tax-basis package omits material receivables and payables, it would not fairly present the company’s financial position for an ASPE-based lender decision. Tax compliance documents, management preferences, or cash-focused documents may be relevant for other purposes, but they do not support the reporting basis or the necessary accrual adjustments for the lender package.


Question 8

Topic: Taxation

Maple Components Ltd. reports under ASPE and uses the future income taxes method. For the year ended December 31, 2025, management recorded current income tax payable from the draft T2 return but did not record any future income tax entry, stating that “taxes are settled when paid.” The controller believes a correction is needed because the tax treatment of equipment created a year-end temporary difference. The enacted corporate tax rate expected to apply when the difference reverses is 25%.

Which source best supports the controller’s conclusion that the tax provision should be corrected to include a future income tax liability?

  • A. CRA instalment remittance confirmations showing instalments paid and the remaining current tax payable per the draft return.
  • B. Supplier invoices and the accounting depreciation schedule showing the equipment’s original cost and accumulated amortization under ASPE.
  • C. A management representation stating that the equipment will be used for several more years and no income tax cash outflow is due on December 31.
  • D. A tax-to-accounting fixed asset continuity reconciling the equipment’s accounting carrying amount of 420,000 to UCC of 360,000 at year-end and applying the enacted 25% rate to the 60,000 taxable temporary difference.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Under ASPE, if an entity uses the future income taxes method, recording only current tax payable is incomplete when temporary differences create future tax consequences. A lower UCC than accounting carrying amount means tax deductions have been accelerated relative to accounting depreciation. As the equipment’s carrying amount is recovered, that difference is expected to result in taxable amounts, creating a future income tax liability measured using the enacted or substantively enacted rate expected to apply on reversal. The strongest support is therefore a tax-to-accounting continuity that ties the financial statement carrying amount to the tax base and calculates the temporary difference. Evidence of cash remittances, original cost, or management expectations does not directly establish the omitted future tax liability.


Question 9

Topic: Audit and Assurance

A CPA firm is deciding whether to accept a review engagement for Orion Ltd.’s year-end ASPE financial statements. The bank requires an independent review report for a loan renewal in six weeks. Management has accepted responsibility for the financial statements but says the firm cannot inspect board minutes or correspondence with legal counsel about a lawsuit because those documents are confidential; the lawsuit could be material to going concern. What should the engagement partner recommend?

  • A. Accept the engagement but describe the access restriction in the engagement letter.
  • B. Decline the engagement unless management removes the access restriction before acceptance.
  • C. Accept the engagement and rely on a written management representation about the lawsuit.
  • D. Convert the work to a compilation engagement because the bank can assess the limitation itself.

Best answer: B

Explanation: Engagement acceptance requires considering whether the practitioner can perform the engagement properly, including access to information needed to support the conclusion. Even though a review provides limited assurance rather than reasonable assurance, the practitioner still needs enough appropriate evidence from inquiries, analytical procedures, and follow-up work on significant matters. A lawsuit that may affect going concern is a significant financial reporting issue. If management refuses access to relevant documents before the engagement is accepted, this is a scope limitation and a planning/acceptance issue. The firm should not accept merely because the bank deadline is pressing or because management will provide a representation.


Question 10

Topic: Finance

Maple Ltd. purchased 100% of the common shares of Cedar Inc. for cash on December 31. Cedar will continue as a separate legal corporation, and Maple will consolidate Cedar under IFRS. Maple also paid separate acquisition-related legal and due-diligence fees of $30,000.

Item at acquisition dateAmount
Cash paid for Cedar shares$1,200,000
Fair value of Cedar’s identifiable assets$1,350,000
Fair value of Cedar’s identifiable liabilities$300,000
Cedar tax basis of net assets after the share purchase$650,000
Income tax rate25%

Assume the share purchase does not step up Cedar’s tax bases, taxable temporary differences are recognized as deferred tax liabilities, and acquisition-related costs are expensed under IFRS. What amount of financial reporting goodwill should Maple recognize on consolidation at acquisition?

  • A. Recognize goodwill of $180,000.
  • B. Recognize goodwill of $250,000.
  • C. Recognize goodwill of $150,000.
  • D. Recognize goodwill of $280,000.

Best answer: B

Explanation: For consolidated financial reporting, Maple accounts for acquiring control of Cedar as a business combination. The identifiable net assets are measured at fair value: $1,350,000 assets less $300,000 liabilities = $1,050,000. Because this is a share purchase, Cedar’s tax bases do not step up; the taxable temporary difference is $1,050,000 - $650,000 = $400,000, creating a deferred tax liability of $100,000 at 25%. Net identifiable assets recognized are therefore $950,000. Acquisition-related legal and due-diligence fees are expensed, not included in consideration. Goodwill is $1,200,000 - $950,000 = $250,000.


Question 11

Topic: Financial Reporting

Brightline Ltd. is preparing ratio and trend comments for its bank under ASPE. Amounts are in Canadian dollars. Use only the source data shown; no supportable annualization or seasonal adjustment has been prepared.

Data sourcePeriod/dateBasisRevenueGross profitCurrent assetsCurrent liabilities
2024 interim9 months ended/as at Sep. 30, 2024ASPE1,800,000720,000500,000400,000
2025 interim9 months ended/as at Sep. 30, 2025ASPE2,070,000828,000550,000440,000
2024 annual12 months ended/as at Dec. 31, 2024ASPE2,400,000960,000520,000410,000

Which draft conclusion is unsupported because the source data, period, or basis is inconsistent?

  • A. Year-to-date revenue increased by 15.0%, comparing 2025 interim revenue of 2,070,000 with 2024 interim revenue of 1,800,000.
  • B. Year-to-date gross margin remained 40.0%, comparing gross profit with revenue within each interim period.
  • C. Annual revenue increased by 15.0%, calculated by annualizing 2025 nine-month revenue to 2,760,000 and comparing it with 2024 annual revenue of 2,400,000.
  • D. The Sep. 30 current ratio remained 1.25, comparing interim current assets with interim current liabilities at each date.

Best answer: C

Explanation: A ratio or trend conclusion should compare like with like: the same reporting basis, comparable periods, and source data that directly supports the statement being made. The 2025 interim and 2024 interim figures both cover nine months under ASPE, so year-to-date revenue and gross margin comparisons are supported. The Sep. 30 current ratio comparison is also supported because both ratios use point-in-time interim balances at the same date in each year. However, annualizing the 2025 nine-month revenue assumes the remaining three months will follow the same pattern. The stem states that no supportable annualization or seasonal adjustment has been prepared, so comparing that derived annualized amount with the audited 2024 annual revenue does not support a conclusion about annual revenue growth.


Question 12

Topic: Taxation

A CPA is preparing Leila’s 2026 Canadian personal income tax return. No treaty exemption or special election applies, and all amounts are in Canadian dollars. Based on the exhibit, what amount should be reported as income subject to Canadian tax before deductions and credits?

FactDetails
ResidencyNon-resident of Canada from January 1 to April 30; became a Canadian resident on May 1 after moving her home and family to Canada.
Pre-residency foreign employmentCAD 28,000 earned for duties performed in Germany from January to April.
Pre-residency Canadian employmentCAD 12,000 earned for duties performed in Canada during a March assignment.
Post-residency worldwide incomeCAD 90,000 earned from May 1 to December 31 from employment and investments.
  • A. CAD 90,000: report only the income earned after Leila became a Canadian resident.
  • B. CAD 102,000: report the pre-residency Canadian employment income plus the post-residency worldwide income.
  • C. CAD 118,000: report the pre-residency foreign employment income plus the post-residency worldwide income.
  • D. CAD 130,000: report all worldwide income earned during the calendar year.

Best answer: B

Explanation: For a part-year resident, Canadian tax reporting is split at the residency change date. Once the individual becomes resident, Canada taxes worldwide income from that date onward. Before residency begins, Canada does not tax foreign-source income merely because it was earned in the same calendar year; however, it can tax certain Canadian-source amounts, including employment income for duties performed in Canada. Leila therefore reports CAD 90,000 for the May 1 to December 31 resident period and CAD 12,000 for the March duties performed in Canada. The CAD 28,000 from German duties before May 1 is outside Canadian taxable income on these facts, so the supported amount is CAD 102,000.


Question 13

Topic: Audit and Assurance

Prairie Home Goods, an ASPE retailer, implemented a new warehouse system on December 15. Since implementation, customer deliveries have been delayed, and the sales system has sometimes failed to generate invoices when goods leave the warehouse. The controller concludes that the delivery delays are primarily an operational risk, while the invoicing failure creates a financial reporting risk at year end. Which evidence best supports the financial reporting risk conclusion?

  • A. A warehouse training log showing that several shipping employees had not completed scanner training before go-live
  • B. A customer service report showing that delivery complaints doubled after December 15
  • C. A management memo stating that late deliveries may reduce customer satisfaction and future sales
  • D. A reconciliation of December shipping logs to invoices and accounts receivable, identifying shipped orders not recorded by December 31

Best answer: D

Explanation: Operational risks affect the entity’s ability to run its business effectively, such as late deliveries, staff training gaps, or customer dissatisfaction. Financial reporting risks affect whether amounts or disclosures in the financial statements may be misstated. Here, the same system implementation creates both types of risk. Evidence of delivery complaints supports an operational issue, but the year-end reporting concern is whether shipped goods were properly invoiced and recorded. A reconciliation from shipping logs to invoices and accounts receivable is the strongest support because it tests completeness and cutoff of recorded sales and receivables for goods already shipped before December 31.


Question 14

Topic: Finance

Maple Parts Ltd. is preparing year-end financial statements and needs support for a tangible asset valuation. An external valuator concluded that a five-year-old CNC machine should be valued using an orderly market approach, assuming the machine remains in productive use in its current condition rather than being sold for scrap. Which source best supports this valuation conclusion?

  • A. A scrap-metal dealer’s quote to remove and buy the machine for parts within one week.
  • B. A management representation stating that the machine is essential to operations and should not be written down.
  • C. The original purchase invoice and accounting depreciation schedule for the CNC machine.
  • D. An independent appraisal file with an inspection report, photographs, maintenance history reviewed, and adjusted sales of comparable used CNC machines in orderly transactions.

Best answer: D

Explanation: A tangible asset valuation conclusion depends on the valuation purpose and assumptions about market evidence, condition, and use. For a financial reporting valuation using an orderly market approach, the strongest support is independent evidence that links comparable market transactions to the specific asset being valued and confirms the asset’s actual condition and intended use. An appraisal file with inspection evidence, maintenance history, photographs, and adjusted comparable sales addresses those assumptions directly. By contrast, historical cost, management preference, or a forced-sale scrap quote may be useful for other purposes but does not best support an orderly, continued-use market valuation.


Question 15

Topic: Financial Reporting

Bluewater Components Ltd., a privately owned manufacturer, is choosing a reporting basis for year-end reports. The bank has requested annual ASPE financial statements to renew an operating line and assess profitability, current ratio, and debt service. A federal grant agreement requires a separate report of eligible project costs actually paid from grant funds during the fiscal year. Management proposes issuing one cash-basis package to all users because it is quickest and matches the bank statement. Which recommendation best supports stakeholder decision usefulness?

  • A. Prepare one set of ASPE accrual-basis statements and use it as the grant report because GAAP is more reliable than a special-purpose report.
  • B. Issue one cash-basis report to both users because cash movements are objective and align with bank statements.
  • C. Prepare only the grantor’s special-purpose cash-basis report and add a note saying it should also satisfy the bank.
  • D. Prepare ASPE accrual-basis financial statements for the bank and a separate cash-basis special-purpose grant report for the grantor.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Decision usefulness depends on the purpose of the report and the needs of its users. The bank is making a lending decision and specifically requested ASPE financial statements, so accrual-basis reporting is needed to show revenues earned, expenses incurred, receivables, payables, and other obligations affecting profitability and liquidity. A cash-basis package could omit important working-capital and debt-service information. The grantor has a different objective: compliance with a funding agreement based on eligible costs actually paid. A separate special-purpose cash-basis report is appropriate for that limited purpose, but it should not replace general-purpose ASPE reporting for the bank.


Question 16

Topic: Taxation

A CPA is preparing a tax-risk summary for a shareholder-manager whose disputed personal tax reassessment may affect a related corporation’s disclosure of a tax indemnity. CRA mailed a notice of reassessment on April 15, 2026, denying claimed employment expense deductions. The taxpayer’s objection deadline was July 14, 2026. An extension request may be made until July 14, 2027, but CRA must approve it before the objection is processed. On September 5, 2026, the taxpayer sent a Notice of Objection without requesting an extension. CRA replied that it cannot process the objection unless an extension application is filed. The only support available is an after-the-fact spreadsheet and credit card summaries; no employer certification or detailed receipts are available. As at September 30, 2026, how should the file be characterized?

  • A. A late-objection reassessment with possible extension relief but elevated appeal risk.
  • B. A pre-assessment proposal because CRA has not yet issued an appeals decision.
  • C. A closed appeal file with no possible administrative remedy because the 90-day objection deadline has passed.
  • D. A timely appealed reassessment because a Notice of Objection has been sent to CRA.

Best answer: A

Explanation: A notice of reassessment is an assessed tax position, not merely a proposal. Because the taxpayer missed the July 14 objection deadline, the file should not be characterized as a timely appeal. The facts state that extension relief is still possible until July 14, 2027, but CRA must approve the extension before processing the objection. Therefore, the appeal rights are at risk rather than fully lost. The taxpayer’s support also increases the risk: an after-the-fact spreadsheet and credit card summaries may show some spending, but they do not directly establish that the claimed employment expenses met the tax requirements. The best classification is a late-objection reassessment with possible extension relief and elevated appeal risk.


Question 17

Topic: Audit and Assurance

During a review engagement for Northbay Tools Ltd.’s ASPE financial statements, you are evaluating management’s statement that no allowance for doubtful accounts is needed for a material year-end receivable. Performance materiality for this area is $25,000.

Evidence obtainedDetails
Aged receivables listingCustomer balance of $96,000 was 184 days past due at year-end.
Subsequent cash receipts$18,000 was collected 20 days after year-end; no other receipts by the review file date.
Direct customer confirmationThe customer confirms the remaining $78,000 balance, but disputes $36,000 for damaged goods and says payment of the other $42,000 depends on financing expected next quarter.
Controller inquiryThe controller says the customer is important and has paid in prior years.

Which recommendation is best supported by the exhibit?

  • A. Conclude that no allowance is required because the post-year-end receipt and payment history indicate collectability.
  • B. Conclude that the entire $96,000 should be written off because the balance was 184 days past due at year-end.
  • C. Reclassify the remaining $78,000 as a long-term receivable because the customer expects financing next quarter.
  • D. Do not accept the no-allowance conclusion; obtain further evidence and consider an allowance for the disputed and uncertain amounts.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Sufficient and appropriate evidence must directly support the reporting conclusion. Here, the most relevant and reliable evidence is the subsequent cash receipt and direct customer confirmation. The $18,000 receipt supports collectability only for that amount. The customer’s confirmation identifies a material $36,000 dispute and makes payment of the remaining $42,000 conditional on future financing. The controller’s inquiry is less persuasive because it is an internal assertion and does not overcome the external evidence. Therefore, the evidence does not support management’s conclusion that no allowance is required. The appropriate recommendation is to perform follow-up procedures and assess an allowance for the disputed and uncertain amounts.


Question 18

Topic: Finance

North Ridge Components Ltd., a private company applying ASPE, is reviewing a stamping press for financial reporting and for renewal of its bank line. Management has the following appraisal excerpt:

Valuation outputAmountKey assumptions
Value in continued use$850,000Press remains installed in the current production line; buyer is assumed to want this configuration; inputs are dealer quotes for operating presses adjusted for age and capacity.
Orderly liquidation value$610,000Press is sold separately within six months; buyer removes and reinstalls it; inputs are auction results for comparable used presses.
Forced liquidation value$420,000Sale is completed within 30 days; inspection is limited; press is sold as-is; inputs are distressed-sale results.

The press has a carrying amount of $700,000. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  • A. The amounts are purpose-specific; management should match the valuation to the reporting or lending decision because the assumed market, condition, and use of the press drive the conclusion.
  • B. The $850,000 amount is the best estimate for all purposes because it uses dealer quotes rather than auction or distressed-sale data.
  • C. The $610,000 amount proves the press is impaired because it is below the $700,000 carrying amount and reflects an orderly market sale.
  • D. The $420,000 amount should replace carrying amount because conservative accounting requires using the lowest supportable valuation.

Best answer: A

Explanation: A tangible asset valuation conclusion is driven by its purpose and valuation premise, not just by the dollar amount. Here, the continued-use value assumes the press stays installed and is useful to a buyer in its current configuration. The orderly and forced liquidation values assume different markets, sale timing, buyer behaviour, and condition information. Those assumptions make the outputs suitable for different decisions. Financial reporting under ASPE must use a basis consistent with the applicable reporting requirement, while a bank collateral assessment may focus more on realizable value if the press must be sold separately. Management cannot automatically choose the highest or lowest amount without first matching the valuation assumptions to the decision being made.


Question 19

Topic: Financial Reporting

Northstar Appliances Ltd. is a private manufacturer reporting under ASPE. Draft financial statements will be provided to its bank for a covenant renewal, and management bonuses depend on income before tax. The controller identified the following warranty information, with amounts in thousands of Canadian dollars:

YearSalesActual warranty claimsWarranty expense recordedYear-end warranty liability
20234,800143150155
20244,950151149153
2025 draft5,1001483742

Management says a new inspection program justifies the lower 2025 accrual, but there is no production or claims data supporting improved defect rates, and claims in January 2026 are consistent with prior years. The draft note also removes the prior-year disclosure that warranty costs are subject to estimation uncertainty. What is the best interpretation?

  • A. The issue is only a debt-covenant matter because warranty estimates affect the bank, not recognition or measurement under ASPE.
  • B. The treatment supports a reasonable change in accounting estimate because management identified a quality initiative, so the lower accrual can be accepted unless actual claims have already increased.
  • C. The pattern suggests management bias in both measurement and transparency: the unsupported warranty estimate reduces a liability and expense, and the removed disclosure obscures estimation uncertainty for users.
  • D. The warranty liability should be reduced to zero because no obligation exists until customers submit valid claims.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Management bias can appear through estimates or disclosures that systematically favour management’s desired result, even when intent cannot be proven. Here, prior claims and warranty expenses were stable at about 3% of sales, while the 2025 draft records a much lower expense and liability despite similar claims activity and no supporting operational data. The bank covenant and bonus arrangement create incentives to improve reported income and financial position. Removing disclosure about estimation uncertainty also reduces transparency for users. Under ASPE, a warranty obligation from past sales should be estimated using supportable information, and significant uncertainty should not be hidden merely because it is inconvenient for financing discussions.


Question 20

Topic: Taxation

Harbour Ltd. reports under ASPE and uses the taxes payable method. On December 31, 2025, it sold a division in an asset sale, not a share sale. The sale closed before year end. Ignore sales taxes and transaction costs. No instalments, other income or losses, credits, or loss carryforwards need be considered. The corporate tax rate is 26%, and 50% of capital gains are taxable. Equipment was the only property in its CCA class.

Asset soldProceeds allocatedCarrying amountTax information before sale
Land$1,200,000$750,000ACB of $700,000
Equipment$1,800,000$1,300,000UCC of $1,000,000; original capital cost of $2,400,000

What current income tax payable from the transaction should be integrated into the year-end reporting analysis?

  • A. Recognize current income tax payable of $273,000.
  • B. Recognize current income tax payable of $338,000.
  • C. Recognize current income tax payable of $208,000.
  • D. Recognize current income tax payable of $247,000.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Because the transaction was structured as an asset sale and closed before year end, the tax effect is a current tax consequence for reporting. The land creates a capital gain of $500,000, of which 50% is taxable, giving $250,000 of taxable income. The equipment proceeds of $1,800,000 are below original cost but above UCC, creating CCA recapture of $800,000, which is fully taxable. Total taxable income from the transaction is therefore $1,050,000, and at 26% the current tax payable is $273,000. The accounting carrying amounts affect the accounting gain, but they do not determine current tax payable.


Question 21

Topic: Audit and Assurance

You are documenting Solaro Ltd.’s purchasing process for Core 1 risk assessment work. The purchasing policy says purchase orders must be approved before goods are ordered. Your walkthrough note for a recent purchase states that the warehouse supervisor emailed the supplier directly, goods were received two days later, and the accounts payable clerk created the purchase order only when entering the invoice. Which evidence would best support documenting the actual process in use?

  • A. A management representation that staff usually follow the approved purchasing policy.
  • B. The supplier’s monthly statement showing the invoice was paid after month-end.
  • C. ERP audit trail for the sampled purchase showing the supplier order email, receiving report date, purchase order creation date, and invoice entry user.
  • D. The purchasing policy manual stating that purchase orders must be approved before goods are ordered.

Best answer: C

Explanation: To document the actual process in use, the best support is evidence that shows what happened in practice for the walkthrough transaction. An ERP audit trail linked to the sampled purchase can show the timing, users, and sequence of the order, receiving, purchase order creation, and invoice entry. This helps the preparer document the real workflow and identify any difference from the formal policy. A policy manual describes intended design, not necessarily actual operation. Management representations may provide context, but they are less reliable than system-generated or source evidence. A supplier statement may support payment or completeness of supplier balances, but it does not show how the purchasing process operated.


Question 22

Topic: Finance

Ridge Components Ltd., a private Canadian manufacturer, is updating its financial risk management policy before its bank renewal. Relevant facts are:

  • 70% of raw materials are purchased from U.S. suppliers, invoiced in USD and payable 60 days after receipt.
  • All customer sales are to Canadian customers and are invoiced in CAD.
  • Ridge has a $3,000,000 operating loan bearing interest at prime plus 1%.
  • Management’s draft policy would enter forward contracts to sell USD equal to 50% of forecast annual sales and would not address interest rates.

Which recommendation best evaluates whether the draft policy addresses Ridge’s actual risk profile?

  • A. Replace the policy with hedges of all USD purchases and the full loan balance to eliminate all financial risk.
  • B. Do not approve the policy as drafted; revise it to hedge USD purchase payments and assess whether to manage variable-rate interest exposure.
  • C. Approve the foreign exchange policy, but add note disclosure about interest rate sensitivity instead of changing the hedging activities.
  • D. Approve the policy because selling USD forward reduces Ridge’s overall foreign exchange volatility.

Best answer: B

Explanation: A financial risk management policy should be based on the entity’s actual exposures, not on the mere existence of derivatives or management’s preference for reduced volatility. Ridge’s foreign exchange risk comes from USD-denominated purchases payable in the future, while its revenues are in CAD. A policy to sell USD forward would be appropriate for an entity with USD inflows, but Ridge expects USD outflows, so the direction of the hedge is mismatched. Ridge also has interest rate risk because its operating loan floats with prime. A stronger policy would define acceptable instruments, limits, approvals, and monitoring for hedging USD purchase payments and considering whether part of the variable-rate exposure should be managed.


Question 23

Topic: Financial Reporting

Heritage Hotel Ltd. is configuring account codes for its March transaction upload. Its recurring operating activities are room rentals, an on-site restaurant, and paid guest parking. It is not in the business of selling equipment or investing funds. Ignore sales taxes.

March source dataAmount
Room rentals: 420 room-nights at $160 each?
Restaurant sales$24,300
Guest parking fees$2,160
Proceeds from sale of used laundry equipment$5,500
One-time city façade restoration grant$8,000
Bank interest on operating account$350

What amount should be coded as routine operating revenue for March?

  • A. $94,010
  • B. $107,510
  • C. $93,660
  • D. $91,500

Best answer: C

Explanation: Routine transactions are identified by looking at the entity’s business model, industry, and recurring operating activities, not simply by whether cash was received. For a hotel, room rentals are the primary recurring revenue stream. The on-site restaurant and paid guest parking are also recurring operating activities because they are part of the hotel’s normal services to guests. The routine operating revenue is therefore \(420 \times 160 = 67,200\), plus $24,300, plus $2,160, for a total of $93,660. The sale of laundry equipment is a non-routine disposal, the city grant is a one-time receipt, and bank interest is not operating revenue for this hotel’s business model.


Question 24

Topic: Taxation

Larch Ltd. is preparing its December 31, 20X5 ASPE financial statements for its bank before they are approved for issue. Larch’s sole shareholder died on January 20, 20X6. At year end, Larch owed the shareholder a $600,000 demand loan and had relied on the shareholder not calling the loan. The executor has advised that the estate will demand repayment in March 20X6 to fund the shareholder’s terminal tax liability, and Larch has no replacement financing arranged. Which reporting action is most appropriate?

  • A. Recognize the shareholder’s RRSP proceeds as a receivable because they may be available to help the estate fund the loan demand.
  • B. Evaluate going-concern and subsequent-event disclosure for the estate’s intended demand for repayment of the shareholder loan.
  • C. Record the estate’s terminal tax liability as an income tax payable of Larch because it arose from the deemed disposition of Larch shares.
  • D. Remeasure Larch’s share capital to fair value at the shareholder’s date of death because the estate tax rules use a deemed disposition.

Best answer: B

Explanation: Estate, trust, and deferred-plan facts matter in a Core 1 reporting scenario only when they affect the reporting entity’s financial statements or users’ decisions. Here, Larch does not report the deceased shareholder’s personal terminal tax or RRSP assets. However, the executor’s plan to call the $600,000 demand loan after year end directly affects Larch’s liquidity and the bank’s assessment of the financial statements. Because the financial statements have not yet been approved, Larch should evaluate whether this creates a material going-concern uncertainty and whether subsequent-event disclosure is required. The reporting focus is the company’s obligation and ability to continue meeting its liabilities, not the estate’s personal tax calculation.

Core 1 answer checklist

What to checkWhy it matters
Issue before ruleIdentify what decision or assertion is actually at risk before citing technical guidance.
Evidence qualitySeparate management preference from supportable evidence.
User impactAsk whether the issue would change a lender, owner, or manager decision.
Practical recommendationA good answer usually explains the next action, not just the theory.

Mini Glossary

  • PEP: CPA Canada’s Professional Education Program.
  • Assertion: A financial-statement claim being tested, such as existence, completeness, valuation, or rights and obligations.
  • Segregation of duties: Separating authorization, recordkeeping, custody, and review so one person cannot complete and conceal an error.
  • Relevant cash flow: A future cash flow that changes between decision options.

Focused sample questions

Use these child pages when you want focused Finance Prep practice before returning to mixed sets and timed mocks.

In this section

Revised on Monday, May 25, 2026