CompTIA Network+ N10-010: Network Implementation

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Sample questions

These original IT Mastery practice questions are aligned to this topic area. Use them for self-assessment, scope review, and deciding what to drill next.

Question 1

Topic: Network Implementation

A company is refreshing wireless in a high-density training room. The room has frequent video classes and visible interference from neighboring 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz WLANs. About 70% of laptops support Wi-Fi 6E, but several handheld inventory scanners support only 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi. The budget does not include replacing clients this year. Which deployment decision best improves performance while preserving compatibility?

Options:

• A. Deploy tri-band Wi-Fi 6E APs with 6 GHz for capable laptops and 2.4 GHz for scanners.

• B. Deploy 6 GHz-only Wi-Fi 6E APs and retire the 2.4 GHz SSID.

• C. Keep dual-band Wi-Fi 5 APs and force all clients to 5 GHz.

• D. Deploy Wi-Fi 7 APs and disable 2.4 GHz to reduce interference.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The key decision is balancing performance improvement with client compatibility. Wi-Fi 6E extends Wi-Fi 6 capabilities into the 6 GHz band, which can reduce contention and improve performance for compatible laptops in a crowded environment. However, 6 GHz is not usable by older 2.4 GHz-only scanners. A tri-band deployment can steer capable laptops to 6 GHz while keeping a separate 2.4 GHz SSID available for required legacy devices. Wi-Fi 7 may also support 6 GHz, but disabling 2.4 GHz or assuming all clients can use newer bands would break scanner connectivity. The best design uses newer spectrum where it helps without removing required legacy access.

• 6 GHz-only fails because the required scanners cannot connect to the 6 GHz band.
• Wi-Fi 5 only misses the opportunity to use the less-congested 6 GHz band for Wi-Fi 6E laptops.
• Disabling 2.4 GHz reduces interference exposure but violates the compatibility requirement for 2.4 GHz-only devices.

Question 2

Topic: Network Implementation

A network technician is reviewing a routing design before a WAN cutover. Based on the exhibit, which interpretation is best supported?

Exhibit: Routing design summary

Options:

• A. BGP is being used for inter-AS routing with the ISP.

• B. EIGRP is being used as the external Internet routing protocol.

• C. All three protocols are serving the same routing role.

• D. OSPF is being used to advertise the public prefix to the ISP.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The exhibit separates internal routing from external routing. OSPF and EIGRP are interior gateway protocols used inside an organization’s routing domain. OSPF is open-standard and link-state; EIGRP is commonly associated with legacy internal deployments. BGP is an exterior gateway protocol used between autonomous systems, which matches the Edge1-to-ISP1 link showing AS 65010 peering with AS 64520. The default route and public prefix advertisement also fit a typical ISP edge use case. The key distinction is not that one protocol is always faster or better, but where it operates: OSPF/EIGRP inside the enterprise, BGP between independently managed networks.

• OSPF to ISP fails because the exhibit assigns OSPF only to internal private subnets, not the ISP edge.
• EIGRP for Internet fails because EIGRP is shown on the legacy branch link, not between autonomous systems.
• Same routing role fails because the protocols are being used for different internal and external routing purposes.

Question 3

Topic: Network Implementation

A branch office has 75 employee laptops using RFC 1918 IPv4 addresses. The ISP provides only one public IPv4 address on the edge router. Employees need simultaneous outbound access to websites and cloud applications, but no internal servers need to be reachable from the Internet. Which configuration concept best meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Destination NAT for inbound port forwarding

• B. Dynamic NAT using a public address pool

• C. Static NAT for each employee laptop

• D. PAT using the router’s public interface address

Best answer: D

Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT), also called NAT overload, is the best fit when many private IPv4 hosts must share a single public IPv4 address for outbound connections. The edge router rewrites the private source IP address to the public interface address and tracks each flow with translated port numbers. This conserves public IPv4 space while allowing simultaneous sessions from many internal clients. Traditional NAT translates addresses, but one-to-one static NAT or pool-based dynamic NAT requires enough public addresses for the mapped hosts or active translations. Inbound port forwarding is used to publish an internal service, which the stem says is not needed.

• Static mappings fail because 75 laptops would require separate public mappings, which does not fit one available public address.
• Address pool NAT fails because the scenario provides only one public IPv4 address, not a pool to allocate from.
• Inbound forwarding fails because the requirement is outbound Internet access, not publishing an internal server.

Question 4

Topic: Network Implementation

A company is deploying 30 wireless access points across two office floors. The network team wants to configure SSIDs, security settings, channel plans, and transmit power from one central system instead of logging in to each AP. Which deployment mode best meets this requirement?

Options:

• A. Lightweight APs managed by a wireless controller

• B. Wireless extenders managed individually

• C. Autonomous APs with local web management

• D. Standalone APs with separate SSID templates

Best answer: A

Explanation: Lightweight access points are designed for controller-based deployments. The AP handles client wireless connectivity, while a wireless controller or centralized management platform handles configuration, policy, monitoring, and often radio settings such as channel and transmit power. This fits environments with many APs where consistent SSIDs, encryption settings, and roaming behavior must be managed centrally.

Autonomous APs operate more independently and are usually configured one device at a time. They can work well for small or isolated deployments, but they do not best match the requirement for centralized management across 30 APs.

• Local web management is less suitable because each autonomous AP is managed independently.
• Separate templates may reduce effort, but standalone APs still lack true controller-based centralized operation.
• Wireless extenders are used to expand coverage, not to provide centralized enterprise AP management.

Question 5

Topic: Network Implementation

A school is replacing auditorium APs with Wi-Fi 7 capable models. The client mix includes new tablets that support 6 GHz, teacher laptops that support Wi-Fi 6 but not Wi-Fi 6e, and older Wi-Fi 5 projectors. Events are congested on the existing 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz WLANs. Which configuration best improves tablet performance without breaking compatibility?

Options:

• A. Disable 5 GHz and use only 2.4 GHz and 6 GHz

• B. Force all clients to 2.4 GHz for maximum compatibility

• C. Enable 6 GHz for capable tablets and keep 5 GHz for legacy clients

• D. Move all clients to a 6 GHz-only SSID

Best answer: C

Explanation: Wi-Fi performance and compatibility depend on both the standard and the band a client supports. The 6 GHz band is available to Wi-Fi 6e and Wi-Fi 7 clients, so it can reduce congestion and improve performance for newer devices. However, Wi-Fi 6-only clients do not automatically support 6 GHz, and Wi-Fi 5 clients generally rely on 5 GHz. Keeping 5 GHz available preserves compatibility for the teacher laptops and projectors while allowing capable tablets to use the less congested 6 GHz band.

The key takeaway is to add 6 GHz capacity for supported clients, not replace legacy bands that existing devices still need.

• 6 GHz only fails because Wi-Fi 6-only laptops and Wi-Fi 5 projectors would not be able to use that band.
• 2.4 GHz only maximizes reach and legacy support but usually has more congestion and lower throughput.
• Disabling 5 GHz removes the band needed by many Wi-Fi 5 and Wi-Fi 6 clients.

Question 6

Topic: Network Implementation

A branch office has a primary fiber Internet circuit and a lower-bandwidth LTE circuit kept for failover. Operations policy says SaaS traffic should use fiber unless the primary circuit is down. Users can reach the SaaS app, but monitoring shows traffic to 198.51.100.50 leaving through LTE while other Internet traffic uses fiber.

Which concept best explains the unexpected path selection?

Options:

• A. FHRP active gateway failover

• B. Longest prefix match

• C. Administrative distance preference

• D. PAT overload exhaustion

Best answer: B

Explanation: Routers select the most specific matching route first. The destination 198.51.100.50 matches both the default route 0.0.0.0/0 and the more specific 198.51.100.0/24 route. Because /24 is a longer prefix than /0, the router sends that SaaS traffic to the LTE next hop even though the default route sends general Internet traffic to fiber. This is a route-selection issue, not a NAT or gateway-availability issue. To align with policy, the network team should remove or change the more specific LTE route, or ensure it is only installed during failover.

• PAT exhaustion would usually cause translation failures or intermittent connectivity, not consistent forwarding of one destination prefix to LTE.
• FHRP failover affects the clients’ default gateway availability, but the stem says other Internet traffic still uses fiber.
• Administrative distance matters when routes to the same prefix compete; here the key difference is prefix length.

Question 7

Topic: Network Implementation

A junior technician is checking an IDF after several switches log thermal warnings. The room uses front-to-back rack airflow and a clean-agent fire suppression system. Which action is best supported by the exhibit?

Exhibit: IDF environmental dashboard

Options:

• A. Install a dehumidifier in the IDF

• B. Open the rack doors to release heat

• C. Clear the return-air vent and notify facilities

• D. Disable clean-agent fire suppression during cooling

Best answer: C

Explanation: The exhibit points to an environmental cooling and airflow issue, not a humidity or fire suppression issue. The room temperature is above the stated acceptable range, and the return-air vent is blocked by cartons. In a network room, HVAC works only if supply and return airflow can circulate correctly; blocking the return path can trap hot air and cause equipment thermal alarms. The rack doors are already in the required state, and the relative humidity is within range. The safest next action is to remove the obstruction and involve facilities so the HVAC airflow problem can be corrected without compromising safety systems.

• Humidity fix fails because 47% relative humidity is within the stated acceptable range.
• Open rack doors fails because the site requirement says to keep doors closed, and it does not address the blocked return-air vent.
• Disable suppression fails because fire suppression is normal and should not be impaired to solve a cooling problem.

Question 8

Topic: Network Implementation

A branch router learns the company’s internal subnets from OSPF. The branch has one ISP connection, and the administrator wants any traffic that does not match a more specific internal route to leave through the ISP next hop. The administrator does not want to maintain individual routes for Internet destinations. Which configuration concept best meets this requirement?

Options:

• A. Remove dynamic routing and use connected routes only

• B. Configure a static default route to the ISP

• C. Configure static routes for each Internet prefix

• D. Advertise all Internet routes into OSPF

Best answer: B

Explanation: A default route is the route of last resort. It is used only when the route table has no more specific match for the destination. In this branch, OSPF can continue to provide dynamic routes for known internal subnets, while a static default route points unknown destinations toward the single ISP next hop. This avoids maintaining many individual static routes and keeps route-table behavior predictable. The key distinction is that dynamic routes learn changing networks from a routing protocol, static routes are manually defined, and a default route covers all otherwise unmatched destinations.

• Per-prefix static routes would create unnecessary administrative overhead and still would not scale for Internet destinations.
• Advertising Internet routes into OSPF is excessive for a small branch and contradicts the goal of avoiding many external routes.
• Connected routes only would not provide reachability to remote internal networks or Internet destinations beyond directly attached networks.

Question 9

Topic: Network Implementation

A technician is installing PoE devices in an IDF. The UPS-backed rack PDU has enough AC capacity for the switch, but the switch has a 370 W PoE budget. All devices may start at the same time and must remain powered.

Which installation choice best meets the power requirement?

Options:

• A. Stagger the device startup order

• B. Reduce the switch port speed to 100 Mbps

• C. Move the switch to a higher-rated rack PDU

• D. Use a switch with a larger PoE budget

Best answer: D

Explanation: PoE planning must compare the total worst-case powered-device load to the switch’s available PoE budget. Here, the PDU is not the limiting factor because the stem says it has enough AC capacity. The limiting factor is the switch’s PoE power supply budget: 10 APs at 25.5 W plus 8 cameras at 15.4 W equals 378.2 W. That is more than the available 370 W, so the installation needs more available PoE capacity, such as a higher-budget PoE switch or an added PoE power source designed for the load. Changing data speed or startup timing does not solve a steady-state power shortage.

• Higher-rated PDU does not fix the internal PoE budget limit stated for the switch.
• Startup staggering may reduce boot-time spikes, but the required steady-state maximum still exceeds 370 W.
• Lower port speed affects data rate, not the PoE watts required by APs and cameras.

Question 10

Topic: Network Implementation

A company offers visitor Wi-Fi through a captive portal. Guests can accept the use policy and browse the Internet, but a tester on the guest SSID can also open an internal file share. What is the best next action supported by the exhibit?

Exhibit: Guest WLAN configuration

Options:

• A. Disable the captive portal and use a shared wireless passphrase

• B. Enable internal DNS records for guest clients

• C. Move Visitor-WiFi into the same VLAN as employee devices

• D. Deny guest VLAN traffic to internal networks before Internet access is allowed

Best answer: D

Explanation: Guest networks should place visitor devices in a separate VLAN or subnet and restrict their access with firewall or ACL rules. In this exhibit, the captive portal is already enabled and guests are in VLAN 30, but the rule Guest VLAN -> Any: Allow permits traffic to internal networks as well as the Internet. The appropriate fix is to block guest traffic to the listed internal subnets, with any permitted Internet/NAT access evaluated after that restriction. A captive portal controls guest acknowledgment or authentication, but it does not automatically provide network segmentation by itself.

• Shared passphrase weakens guest control and does not address access to internal networks.
• Same employee VLAN removes segmentation and would make internal access easier, not harder.
• Internal DNS access may help name resolution, but it would expose more internal resources to guests.

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