CompTIA A+ Core 2 220-1202 Practice Test

Prepare for CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) with free sample questions, a full-length diagnostic, topic drills, timed practice, operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, operational procedures, recovery sequencing, and detailed explanations in IT Mastery.

CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) focuses on operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures for real support environments. If you are searching for 220-1202 sample questions, a practice test, mock exam, or simulator, this is the main IT Mastery page to start on web and continue on iOS or Android with the same IT Mastery account.

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What this 220-1202 practice page gives you

  • a direct route into IT Mastery practice for CompTIA A+ Core 2
  • topic drills and mixed sets across operating systems, security, troubleshooting, and procedures
  • detailed explanations that show why the strongest support and recovery answer is correct
  • a clear free-preview path before you subscribe
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220-1202 exam snapshot

  • Vendor: CompTIA
  • Official exam name: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202)
  • Exam code: 220-1202
  • Question style: multiple-choice and performance-based items around OS, security, and recovery decisions
  • Certification path: one of the two exams required for the full CompTIA A+ credential

220-1202 questions usually reward the option that respects least privilege, follows the correct remediation sequence, and uses the right recovery tool before escalating to more disruptive action.

Topic coverage for 220-1202 practice

  • Operating systems: Windows, macOS, Linux, ChromeOS, core tools, services, storage, and startup behavior
  • Security: hardening, identity, permissions, device protection, encryption, and secure defaults
  • Software troubleshooting: app failures, boot problems, system corruption, browser issues, and performance triage
  • Operational procedures: tickets, documentation, professionalism, safety, privacy, and change handling
  • Mobile and MDM awareness: enrollment, policy enforcement, remote actions, and secure device management

220-1202 support-decision filters

Core 2 questions usually test the safest recovery or hardening step, not the most forceful fix.

Symptom signalFirst checkStrong answer usually…Weak answer usually…
Malware or suspicious behavior appearsContainment and remediation orderIsolates when needed, preserves data/evidence, removes malware, updates, and verifiesDeletes files randomly or wipes first
A user cannot access a resourceIdentity, permissions, and least privilegeChecks account, group, permissions, policy, and authentication pathGrants broad admin rights to solve quickly
Windows will not bootRecovery sequenceUses the least destructive recovery tool appropriate to the symptomReinstalls before trying repair or restore options
A browser or app failsScope and recent changeChecks update, cache, extension, permissions, profile, and compatibilityBlames the network before local scope checks
Backup success is claimedRestore validationTests restores regularly and after major changesTrusts backup-success messages only
A ticket involves sensitive dataPrivacy and documentationRecords necessary facts, protects confidential information, and follows policyCopies sensitive data into notes or chat for convenience

220-1202 readiness map

Domain areaWhat the exam testsWhat IT Mastery practice should forceCommon trap
Operating systemsWhether you can use OS tools, services, startup behavior, storage, and command utilitiesPick the right tool for the symptom and platformMemorizing commands without knowing when to use them
SecurityWhether hardening, identity, permissions, encryption, and malware response are applied correctlyPrefer least privilege, secure defaults, and validated remediationOver-permissioning users to close tickets
Software troubleshootingWhether app, OS, browser, boot, and performance failures are isolated logicallyNarrow scope before disruptive actionReinstalling or resetting too early
Operational proceduresWhether ticketing, documentation, safety, professionalism, and privacy are respectedSolve the issue while preserving process and user trustTreating documentation as optional after the fix
Mobile/MDM awarenessWhether policies and remote actions match device state and ownershipChoose enrollment, wipe, lock, and policy actions carefullyUsing destructive remote actions without checking scope

How to use the 220-1202 simulator efficiently

  1. Start with OS and security drills so the common tools, permission models, and malware response order feel natural.
  2. Review every miss until you can explain why the best recovery or hardening step is safer than the weaker options.
  3. Move into mixed sets once you can shift between permissions, recovery, malware, and documentation scenarios quickly.
  4. Finish with timed runs so you can keep structured decision-making under pressure.

Final 7-day 220-1202 practice sequence

TimingPractice focusWhat to review after the set
Days 7-5One 90-question diagnostic plus drills in weak Core 2 domainsWhether misses came from OS tools, permissions, malware, recovery, operational procedure, or MDM concepts
Days 4-3Mixed OS/security/troubleshooting scenariosWhether you can choose the least destructive recovery or hardening step
Days 2-1Light review of malware-removal order, backup restores, Windows tools, permissions, privacy, and ticket documentationOnly recurring traps; avoid learning unfamiliar command lists late
Exam dayShort warm-up if usefulChoose the action that is secure, documented, and least disruptive

When 220-1202 practice is enough

If you can score above 75% on several unseen mixed attempts and explain the recovery or hardening sequence behind misses, you are likely ready. Repeating familiar support scenarios can hide weak troubleshooting order, so prioritize unseen mixed sets late.

Focused sample questions

Use these child pages when you want focused IT Mastery practice before returning to mixed sets and timed mocks.

Free study resources

Need concept review first? Read the CompTIA A+ 220-1202 Cheat Sheet on Tech Exam Lexicon, then return here for timed mocks, topic drills, and full IT Mastery practice.

Free preview vs premium

  • Free preview: a smaller web set so you can validate the question style and explanation depth.
  • Premium: the full 220-1202 practice bank, focused drills, mixed sets, timed mock exams, detailed explanations, and progress tracking across web and mobile.

24 220-1202 sample questions with detailed explanations

Question 1

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A help-desk technician reviews several Windows 10 workstations in a small office. All systems still use the same default local administrator password, AutoRun is enabled for USB media, and multiple trial/support services run in the background but are never used. Management wants a quick, low-cost security improvement with minimal user disruption. Which approach BEST meets this goal?

Options:

  • A. Install a third‑party security suite on each workstation but leave existing passwords, AutoRun settings, and services unchanged so users are not disturbed.
  • B. Disable all non-Microsoft services and block all USB ports at the hardware level to ensure no background services or removable media can be used.
  • C. Change the default local administrator passwords to unique strong values, disable AutoRun for removable media, and stop/disable only clearly unused third‑party trial/support services.
  • D. Rename the local Administrator account on each PC but keep the same password, leave AutoRun enabled, and configure Windows Update to run more frequently.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The choice to change default local administrator passwords to unique strong values, disable AutoRun for removable media, and stop/disable clearly unused third‑party trial/support services directly addresses each risk described:

  • Shared default admin credentials are replaced with strong, unique passwords, greatly reducing the chance of unauthorized access.
  • AutoRun is disabled, blocking automatic execution from USB media, a common malware delivery method.
  • Unused third‑party trial/support services are disabled, shrinking the attack surface and reducing unnecessary background processes.

All of this is done using existing OS tools, with no new purchases and minimal expected impact on user workflows, so it fully satisfies the “quick, low‑cost, minimal disruption” requirement.


Question 2

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

Which statement BEST describes how an organization should handle backup test restores as part of its disaster‑recovery plan?

Options:

  • A. Perform a single test restore when the backup system is first installed, then rely on that result unless a failure occurs.
  • B. Perform test restores on a regular schedule and after major changes to verify that backups can be successfully restored and meet requirements.
  • C. Rely on backup software “backup successful” messages instead of performing test restores, to avoid unnecessary downtime.
  • D. Only perform test restores after an actual disaster to confirm what data was lost and needs to be recreated manually.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The choice that recommends performing test restores on a regular schedule and after major changes is correct because it captures both key ideas:

  • Frequency: Test restores must be run periodically, not just once, to account for ongoing changes in data and systems.
  • Purpose: They explicitly verify that backups can be successfully restored and that the result meets organizational requirements (for example, acceptable recovery time and data currency).

This matches standard backup best practices and the CompTIA A+ emphasis on verifying backups through test restores.


Question 3

Topic: Domain 2: Security

In Windows 10/11, which built-in component is primarily responsible for delivering security intelligence (malware definition) and engine updates to Microsoft Defender Antivirus?

Options:

  • A. Task Scheduler
  • B. Device Manager
  • C. Windows Update
  • D. Disk Cleanup

Best answer: C

Explanation: Windows Update is correct because it is the built-in Windows service responsible for downloading and installing Microsoft Defender Antivirus security intelligence and engine updates. Defender’s update mechanism is implemented as part of the Windows Update infrastructure, ensuring systems receive current protection alongside regular OS updates.


Question 4

Topic: Domain 3: Software Troubleshooting

Which TWO of the following statements about using modern mobile OS settings (Android and iOS/iPadOS) to improve battery life are TRUE? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Frequently force-closing apps from the recent-apps screen always saves battery because closed apps can never use power again.
  • B. The battery usage screen helps identify which apps or system components are consuming the most power over time.
  • C. Reducing screen brightness or enabling automatic brightness can significantly lower battery usage by the display.
  • D. Allowing all apps to use unrestricted background activity will typically improve battery life because they stay up to date.
  • E. Increasing the screen timeout to the maximum value generally improves battery life because the OS doesn’t need to lock and unlock as often.

Correct answers: B and C

Explanation: The statement about reducing screen brightness or using auto-brightness is correct because the display is a major power user; dimming it directly reduces energy use. The statement about the battery usage screen is also correct, as both Android and iOS/iPadOS provide a battery or power usage view that breaks down power consumption by app or category, which is essential for diagnosing and addressing unusual battery drain.


Question 5

Topic: Domain 2: Security

Which type of malware typically runs in system memory and abuses built-in tools such as PowerShell or WMI, leaving little or no traditional file-based footprint on the disk, making it harder for signature-based antivirus to detect?

Options:

  • A. Boot sector virus
  • B. Fileless malware
  • C. Cryptominer
  • D. Trojan

Best answer: B

Explanation: Fileless malware best matches the description because it:

  • Primarily executes in memory (RAM), not from regular executable files written to disk.
  • Commonly uses built-in administration tools like PowerShell or WMI.
  • Leaves little or no traditional file-based footprint, making signature-based detection more difficult. These characteristics align directly with the scenario in the question.

Question 6

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

Which of the following statements about basic Linux file management commands is NOT correct?

Options:

  • A. chmod is used to change the read, write, and execute permission bits on files and directories.
  • B. grep searches for lines that match a given pattern in files or input passed from another command.
  • C. ls is commonly used to list the files and directories in the current working directory or a specified path.
  • D. rm moves files to a recycle bin by default so they can be easily restored later from the command line.

Best answer: D

Explanation: The statement claiming that rm moves files to a recycle bin by default so they can be easily restored is incorrect. In standard Linux shells, rm unlinks (removes) files from the filesystem without using a recycle bin. Once rm completes successfully, there is no built-in undelete for those files, which is why technicians must use it carefully and often double-check filenames and paths before running it.


Question 7

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

A company’s IT policy states that every change request must clearly state the business purpose, scope of work, type of change, affected systems, and a brief rollback plan, all written in concise language. Which underlying change-management principle does this policy BEST support?

Options:

  • A. Enforcing least privilege on administrator accounts
  • B. Maximizing system availability by preventing all noncritical changes
  • C. Performing post-change performance tuning on production systems
  • D. Using complete, clear change documentation to assess impact and risk

Best answer: D

Explanation: The choice that emphasizes complete, clear change documentation to assess impact and risk matches the policy described. Listing purpose, scope, type, affected systems, and rollback plan ensures that all key fields of a change form are filled out in a concise way. This directly supports change-management goals: understanding impact, evaluating risk, and making informed approval decisions.


Question 8

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

A help-desk technician is hardening a Windows 11 laptop for a user who frequently downloads attachments. Security policy requires that users be able to easily spot files that are pretending to be documents but are actually executable malware, and to see any suspicious hidden files left in folders. The technician must meet this requirement by changing settings only in File Explorer. Which of the following File Explorer changes will BEST meet this requirement? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Enable the display of file name extensions in File Explorer
  • B. Enable viewing of hidden files, folders, and drives in File Explorer
  • C. Clear File Explorer history and the list of recent files
  • D. Disable Windows Defender SmartScreen checks in File Explorer
  • E. Turn off Windows Search indexing for the Downloads folder

Correct answers: A and B

Explanation: Enabling the display of file name extensions directly addresses the need to spot disguised executables by making the true extension visible regardless of icon or filename. Enabling viewing of hidden files, folders, and drives supports finding suspicious content that uses the Hidden attribute, which is common in malware and troubleshooting scenarios. Together, these two File Explorer settings changes precisely match the security and visibility requirements in the scenario.


Question 9

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A technician is creating a hardening checklist for new Windows 11 laptops that will be issued to the finance team. The goal is to reduce security risks from default configurations before users receive the systems.

Which of the following actions is NOT an appropriate hardening step for these workstations?

Options:

  • A. Disable AutoRun/AutoPlay for removable media so USB drives do not automatically execute content.
  • B. Change the factory-set local administrator password to a unique, complex password on each laptop.
  • C. Leave the default local administrator username and password in place so any technician can easily log in to support the laptops.
  • D. Turn off unnecessary file and printer sharing services on laptops that will only access cloud-based resources.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The choice to leave the default local administrator username and password in place so technicians have easy support access is the only action that clearly violates basic workstation-hardening principles. It keeps a well-known, predictable credential on every system, making it easy for attackers, malware, or unauthorized users to gain full control. This breaks the principles of secure configuration, least privilege, and proper password management.


Question 10

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A home user has installed an IP security camera that streams video over TCP port 8443. The camera works correctly when viewed from a laptop or phone connected to the home Wi-Fi, but the phone app cannot connect when the phone is on cellular data. The ISP does not block this port, and UPnP is disabled per security policy. Which action on the SOHO router is the BEST next step to allow secure remote access to the camera?

Options:

  • A. Place the camera’s IP address in the router’s DMZ so all external traffic is sent directly to it
  • B. Enable UPnP on the router so the camera can automatically open ports as needed
  • C. Create a port forwarding rule that maps external TCP port 8443 to the camera’s internal IP address and TCP port 8443
  • D. Add a rule to the Windows Defender Firewall on the user’s laptop to allow inbound TCP port 8443

Best answer: C

Explanation: Creating a port forwarding rule from external TCP 8443 to the camera’s internal IP and TCP 8443 tells the SOHO router exactly where to send inbound traffic for that service. Since the camera is already working on the internal network, this is the missing step to allow external access while limiting exposure to one specific port and device.


Question 11

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

A technician is preparing to upgrade several Windows 10 workstations to Windows 11. According to best practices, which task should be completed first to protect users in case the upgrade fails?

Options:

  • A. Perform a full backup of users’ data and important system settings
  • B. Uninstall all user applications to reduce the chance of software conflicts
  • C. Disable the antivirus software to prevent it from blocking the installer
  • D. Defragment the system drive to improve upgrade performance

Best answer: A

Explanation: The choice to perform a full backup of users’ data and important system settings is correct because it directly protects what cannot be easily replaced: user files and configurations. If the Windows 11 upgrade fails or the system becomes unbootable, the technician can restore data from the backup, minimizing impact to users.


Question 12

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A SOHO employee’s Windows 11 laptop was infected with ransomware after they opened an unexpected “invoice” email attachment from an unknown sender and clicked “Enable Content” in Word. You have removed the malware and restored files from backup. To most directly reduce the chance of this same type of infection happening again, what should you focus on when educating the user?

Options:

  • A. Show the user how to run a full antivirus scan at the end of each week to check for malware.
  • B. Teach the user to always connect through the company VPN when working from home or on public Wi-Fi.
  • C. Explain how to recognize suspicious emails and attachments, avoid clicking unknown links, and verify unexpected messages before opening them.
  • D. Remind the user to lock their computer when leaving their desk to prevent unauthorized physical access.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Focusing on how to recognize suspicious emails and attachments, avoid unknown links, and verify unexpected messages is correct because it directly addresses the behavior that caused the ransomware infection. By teaching the user to be skeptical of unsolicited invoices, shipping notices, or password alerts, and to verify with the supposed sender or IT before opening attachments or enabling macros, you significantly reduce the chance of this specific attack vector succeeding again.


Question 13

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A medical research lab is decommissioning several external hard drives, backup tapes, and laptop SSDs that store unencrypted patient genomic data. Policy requires that the data be destroyed so it is unrecoverable even by advanced forensics, and the hardware will not be reused. Which TWO destruction methods are most appropriate? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Run all devices through a high-strength degausser and then resell the drives, SSDs, and tapes on the secondary market
  • B. Use an industrial incineration service that burns the storage media and then disposes of the remaining material securely
  • C. Drill a few holes through each storage device and place them in a standard e-waste recycling bin
  • D. Use a software utility to perform a single-pass overwrite on each device, then donate the equipment to a local charity
  • E. Send all drives, tapes, and SSDs to a certified vendor that mechanically shreds the media into small fragments

Correct answers: B and E

Explanation: Sending the media to a certified shredding vendor is appropriate because shredding physically cuts the drives, tapes, and SSDs into small pieces, destroying the platters and flash chips. This aligns with the requirement that data be unrecoverable, regardless of forensic effort, and the hardware is not needed for reuse.

Using an industrial incineration service also meets the requirement. High-temperature incineration reduces storage media to ash or slag, destroying the magnetic surface of hard drives and tapes and the memory cells of SSDs. Both methods correspond to the highest sensitivity level for data destruction, where the priority is absolute irrecoverability, not reuse of the hardware.


Question 14

Topic: Domain 3: Software Troubleshooting

A remote employee calls the help desk because their iPhone suddenly stopped connecting to the company Wi‑Fi network, “OfficeSecure,” which worked yesterday. Other employees are connected to the same Wi‑Fi without issues. On the caller’s phone, you see an airplane icon in the status bar and the Wi‑Fi control in Control Center is grayed out. You must restore Wi‑Fi quickly without changing any router settings or erasing user data. Which action should you take FIRST?

Options:

  • A. Log in to the SOHO router and change the WPA2 passphrase for the “OfficeSecure” network
  • B. Perform an iOS update over cellular data and retry connecting after the update
  • C. Turn off Airplane Mode in Control Center or in Settings to re‑enable wireless radios
  • D. Reset all network settings on the iPhone and then reconnect to the Wi‑Fi network

Best answer: C

Explanation: The choice to turn off Airplane Mode directly resolves the root cause indicated by the symptoms: the airplane icon and grayed‑out Wi‑Fi control. Disabling Airplane Mode re‑enables the phone’s wireless radios, including Wi‑Fi, allowing it to reconnect to the known network without deleting any data or modifying infrastructure.

This action is:

  • The least disruptive (no data loss or network changes).
  • Aligned with the visible evidence on the device.
  • Fast, satisfying the requirement to restore connectivity quickly.

Question 15

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

Which TWO of the following statements about electrical safety when servicing PCs are NOT correct or safe? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Using a three‑to‑two‑prong adapter to bypass a missing ground connection is acceptable as long as the PC powers on normally.
  • B. Power supplies and CRT monitors can retain dangerous voltages; entry-level technicians should not attempt to open or repair them.
  • C. If a PC is turned off with the power button, it is safe to work inside the case even if the power cord is still plugged into a grounded outlet.
  • D. Before opening a desktop PC case, you should shut down the PC, unplug the power cord, and press the power button once to help discharge residual power.
  • E. You should avoid wearing metal jewelry such as watches or bracelets when working inside a computer to reduce the risk of electrical shorts.

Correct answers: A and C

Explanation: The statement that it is safe to work inside the case if the PC is turned off but still plugged in is incorrect because standby power can remain on internal components; the cord must be unplugged before servicing. The statement that using a three‑to‑two‑prong adapter to bypass a missing ground connection is acceptable is also unsafe, because it intentionally defeats the safety ground and increases shock and fire risk instead of fixing the outlet or using a properly grounded circuit.


Question 16

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

A user’s Windows 11 laptop can no longer open a line-of-business application. The app shows a “License data corrupt” error. The vendor’s knowledge base says to fix it by deleting a specific key using Registry Editor. Company policy states that Tier 1 technicians must not modify the registry directly. As a Tier 1 tech, what is the BEST next step?

Options:

  • A. Download and run a free third-party registry cleaner to automatically repair the corrupt license data
  • B. Open Registry Editor and delete any keys related to the application under HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software
  • C. Uninstall and reinstall the application, ignoring the vendor’s guidance about deleting registry keys
  • D. Escalate the ticket to Tier 2/desktop support so they can perform the vendor-documented registry change using Registry Editor

Best answer: D

Explanation: Escalating the ticket to Tier 2/desktop support so they can perform the vendor-documented registry change using Registry Editor is best because it:

  • Acknowledges that the fix legitimately involves the registry.
  • Respects the policy that Tier 1 should not modify the registry directly.
  • Ensures that a more experienced technician can take a backup (for example, a System Restore point or registry export) and then follow the vendor’s instructions exactly.

This addresses the likely root cause (corrupt license data in the registry) while minimizing risk to the system and staying within organizational rules.


Question 17

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

Which TWO of the following statements about assigning licenses for cloud-based productivity suites are NOT correct? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Lower-cost or limited-function licenses are often appropriate for kiosk, shared, or seasonal workers who only need web-based email or basic document access.
  • B. Every new user should automatically receive the highest-tier license so they never run into feature limitations, even if their job only needs email and basic collaboration.
  • C. Once a license is assigned to a user account, it cannot be removed or reassigned without completely deleting the cloud tenant.
  • D. When creating a new account, the technician should confirm that the selected license tier actually includes the specific apps and services the user’s role requires.
  • E. Periodically reviewing license assignments to disable or reclaim licenses from inactive or departed users helps reduce wasted subscription costs.

Correct answers: B and C

Explanation: The statement about always giving every user the highest-tier license is incorrect because it ignores both cost and security best practices. Not every role needs advanced features like unlimited storage, advanced compliance tools, or full desktop app suites. Assigning the top tier to everyone usually wastes money and may violate least-privilege principles.

The statement claiming that licenses cannot be removed or reassigned without deleting the entire tenant is also incorrect. In most cloud productivity systems, licenses are managed at the user level. Admins routinely unassign a license from one user and assign it to another, or downgrade and upgrade license tiers as needs change. Deleting the whole tenant is unnecessary and would be an extreme and harmful action.


Question 18

Topic: Domain 2: Security

A home user calls the help desk because their Windows 11 Home PC is showing constant fake antivirus pop-ups and redirecting every browser session. The PC is still connected to the home Wi-Fi and file sharing is enabled. The user does not have a recent full backup, and you plan to run antivirus scans afterward. To improve the current situation and meet the goals of containing the infection and preventing it from being restored later, what should you do first?

Options:

  • A. Create a new restore point, then run a quick antivirus scan while the PC remains connected to the network
  • B. Disconnect the PC from the network and turn off System Restore (System Protection) before beginning malware scans
  • C. Immediately perform a full Windows reset (keep my files) without changing any System Restore settings or disconnecting the PC
  • D. Boot into Safe Mode with Networking and immediately download and run a full antivirus scan, leaving System Restore enabled

Best answer: B

Explanation: The choice to disconnect the PC from the network and turn off System Restore before scanning is best because it:

  • Quarantines the system by removing network connectivity, reducing the risk of the malware spreading to other devices.
  • Prevents reintroduction of malware by disabling System Restore/System Protection so existing restore points cannot be used to roll back to an infected state.
  • Uses built‑in Windows functionality appropriate for a home/SOHO environment and aligns with standard malware-removal procedures.

It directly fulfills both goals given in the question: improve containment and prevent restoration of the infection later.


Question 19

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

Which script file extension is most commonly associated with shell scripts run in a Linux or macOS terminal (for example, by the Bash shell)?

Options:

  • A..sh
  • B..bat
  • C..ps1
  • D..vbs

Best answer: A

Explanation: The option using the.sh extension is correct because.sh is the conventional extension for shell scripts written for Unix-like shells such as Bash. Users typically execute these files in a Linux or macOS terminal by marking them as executable or by invoking them with the shell (for example, bash script.sh).


Question 20

Topic: Domain 3: Software Troubleshooting

A user’s Windows 11 laptop is joined to the company domain. Logging in with a local admin account is fast, but logging in with the user’s domain account takes several minutes and sometimes loads a temporary profile. You notice the laptop’s clock is about 25 minutes behind the domain computers. Which action is the BEST next step to resolve the issue?

Options:

  • A. Run chkdsk on the system drive to repair possible file system corruption affecting the profile.
  • B. Disable Offline Files for the user’s profile so that all data loads directly from the file server.
  • C. Configure the laptop to automatically synchronize its time with the domain time source using the Windows Time service.
  • D. Delete the user’s domain profile on the laptop and let Windows create a new one at next logon.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Configuring the laptop to automatically synchronize its time with the domain time source targets the core issue: the 25-minute clock drift. In a Windows domain, Kerberos ticketing depends on accurate time. Fixing time sync restores normal authentication, which in turn allows the user’s domain profile to load correctly and quickly.


Question 21

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

You need to verify whether DNS is correctly resolving a domain name to an IP address on a Windows 11 PC. Which command-line tool is MOST appropriate for this task?

Options:

  • A. netstat
  • B. nslookup
  • C. tracert
  • D. ping

Best answer: B

Explanation: The choice that uses nslookup is correct because nslookup is explicitly designed to interact with DNS servers and show name-to-IP (and sometimes IP-to-name) mappings. It allows the technician to see exactly what the DNS server returns for a given hostname, which directly addresses the need to verify DNS name resolution.


Question 22

Topic: Domain 1: Operating Systems

A help-desk technician is working on a Linux workstation that is low on disk space and has reports of web application errors. The technician plans to run several commands while troubleshooting.

Which of the following actions should the technician AVOID? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Use chmod -R 777 /var/www so that any user can modify the website files if needed.
  • B. Run rm -rf /var/log/* to quickly delete all log files and free space.
  • C. Run grep -i error /var/log/nginx/error.log to search the web server log for recent failures.
  • D. Run find / -name nginx.conf 2>/dev/null to locate the main web server configuration file.
  • E. Use ls -lh /var/log to review log file sizes before deciding what to clean up.
  • F. Use cp /etc/nginx/nginx.conf /etc/nginx/nginx.conf.bak to create a backup before editing the configuration file.

Correct answers: A and B

Explanation: The actions to avoid are the one that deletes all log files with rm -rf /var/log/* and the one that recursively sets chmod -R 777 /var/www.

Running rm -rf /var/log/* is dangerous because it irreversibly deletes all log files in /var/log, removing valuable troubleshooting data and potentially breaking services that expect specific log files or directories to exist. There is no review or backup step.

Using chmod -R 777 /var/www is also unsafe because it grants read, write, and execute permissions to everyone on the system for all web content files and directories. This violates least-privilege and can allow unauthorized modification, web shell uploads, or data exposure if the web server is compromised.


Question 23

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

You are reviewing a work order before starting the job.

Exhibit:

FieldValue
TaskClean accumulated dust from multiple desktop PCs using compressed air
LocationSmall, poorly ventilated copy room
StatusPC cases opened; all power cords unplugged
PersonnelOnly technician present; no end users in room

Based on the information in the exhibit, which personal protective measure should you take FIRST before you begin the task?

Options:

  • A. Use a lifting belt and team-lift procedures when moving each PC from the desk to the floor.
  • B. Put on safety goggles and an air filter mask before using compressed air inside the PCs.
  • C. Plug the PCs back in so you can clip an ESD wrist strap to the power supply during cleaning.
  • D. Keep a Class C fire extinguisher immediately next to the open case while blowing out dust.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The choice to put on safety goggles and an air filter mask before using compressed air inside the PCs best matches the hazards described:

  • The Task field specifies cleaning accumulated dust with compressed air, which will blow dust into the air.
  • The Location field says the room is small and poorly ventilated, increasing the concentration of airborne dust.

Goggles protect the eyes from dust and flying debris, and an air filter mask protects the lungs from inhaling fine particles. This is the most directly relevant and necessary personal protective measure before starting the described work.


Question 24

Topic: Domain 4: Operational Procedures

Which TWO of the following statements about non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) and mutual NDAs are NOT correct? (Select TWO.)

Options:

  • A. Information covered by an NDA, such as customer data or trade secrets, must be protected even when working remotely, following company security policies and tools.
  • B. A mutual NDA is typically used when both organizations expect to disclose confidential information to each other during a project or evaluation.
  • C. Once an NDA is signed, you may freely share the covered confidential information with any third-party vendors, as long as they also work with your company.
  • D. Violating an NDA can result in internal disciplinary action, termination of employment or contract, and possible legal claims for damages.
  • E. NDAs usually expire as soon as employment or a contract ends, so there is no ongoing obligation to keep information confidential after you leave.

Correct answers: C and E

Explanation: The statement that signing an NDA allows you to freely share confidential information with any third-party vendors is not correct because NDAs typically limit disclosure to specific, authorized parties and require additional agreements for other third parties.

The statement that NDAs usually expire as soon as employment or a contract ends is also not correct because many NDAs explicitly state that confidentiality obligations survive termination and continue for a defined period or indefinitely. These two statements contradict how NDAs are typically written and enforced, which is why they are the correct choices for being NOT correct.

A+ Core 2 operating systems and security map

Use this map after the sample questions to connect individual items to the A+ Core 2 operating-system, security, software, and operational-procedure decisions these practice samples test.

    flowchart LR
	  S1["User software or security issue"] --> S2
	  S2["Identify OS security or procedure domain"] --> S3
	  S3["Collect symptoms and logs"] --> S4
	  S4["Apply safe configuration or remediation"] --> S5
	  S5["Verify user impact and security posture"] --> S6
	  S6["Document and educate user"]

Quick Cheat Sheet

CueWhat to remember
OS supportKnow Windows tools, macOS/Linux basics, boot issues, filesystems, and command-line utilities.
SecurityApply malware response, permissions, authentication, least privilege, and user education.
Software troubleshootingCheck updates, services, compatibility, logs, and user profile symptoms.
ProceduresFollow change management, documentation, backup, privacy, and safety expectations.
Mobile and appsSeparate app, OS, account, network, and hardware symptoms.

Mini Glossary

  • Least privilege: Granting only the permissions needed for the task.
  • Malware remediation: Process for identifying, containing, removing, and recovering from malicious software.
  • Safe Mode: Diagnostic startup mode that loads minimal drivers and services.
  • UAC: Windows User Account Control prompting for elevated actions.
  • Workgroup: Peer Windows network grouping without domain-based management.

In this section

Revised on Thursday, May 14, 2026