Free CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Practice Exam

Practise with 90 original A+ Core 1 220-1201 questions from the current IT Mastery bank. Support scenarios, configuration exhibits, troubleshooting evidence, and diagrams help you practise decisions about mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, and cloud services.

These are independent IT Mastery practice questions, not official CompTIA questions, copied live-exam content, or exam dumps.

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1. Record your answer before opening its explanation. This set contains 81 single-answer questions and 9 Select TWO questions.
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3. Award one point per correct question, for a total out of 90. For Select TWO, both choices must match with no extra choice. Mark correct guesses for review too.
4. Read the explanation and identify the evidence that rules out the strongest competing answer.

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CompTIA specifies a maximum of 90 questions in 90 minutes, including multiple-choice and performance-based questions. This public set uses the Core 1 domain weights; it does not reproduce hands-on performance-based tasks. Official exam details .

Practice-set coverage

Practice questions

Questions 1-25

Question 1

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop contains an SSD, a 3.5-inch hard disk drive, an optical drive, and several cooling fans. A rhythmic clicking sound is loudest near the hard drive bay. Opening files stored on the hard drive causes repeated pauses and read errors, while files on the SSD open normally.

Which interpretation is best supported?

Options:

• A. A cooling fan with a worn bearing

• B. A hard drive with developing mechanical failure

• C. Normal seek activity from the hard drive

• D. An optical drive with a failing spindle bearing

Best answer: B

Explanation: Mechanical hard drives normally produce mild seek sounds, but repeated clicking or grinding accompanied by pauses, retries, and read errors is abnormal. The sound is localized near the hard drive bay, and only data read from that drive is affected. This correlation supports a mechanical hard drive fault rather than a general system problem.

Optical drives and worn fan bearings can also create mechanical noise, but their sounds would correspond to disc rotation or fan operation, not failed reads from a specific hard drive. The combination of noise source and read behavior is the decisive evidence.

• Normal seek activity should not cause repeated pauses and read errors.
• An optical spindle problem would be associated with the optical drive rather than hard drive reads.
• A worn fan bearing can make clicking or grinding noises but does not cause drive-specific read errors.

Question 2

Topic: Hardware

A printer still lacks PIN-release printing after an approved firmware upload. The manufacturer says version 3.2 adds this feature.

Embedded update page:

• Model and controller revision: match the uploaded signed package
• Signature and integrity verification: passed
• Transfer: complete
• Installed running version: 2.4
• Staged version: 3.2
• Status: awaiting administrator restart approval

The vendor procedure says to pause jobs, maintain stable power, and select Restart Now after this status appears. No jobs remain. Which action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Upload the same verified package repeatedly until the menu appears.

• B. Install a workstation printer driver and leave the staged update inactive.

• C. Select Restart Now on the update page and verify version 3.2 afterward.

• D. Leave version 2.4 running and test PIN release from a second workstation.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Transfer completion and firmware activation are separate stages on this documented device. Verification has passed and the correct package is staged, but the printer still runs version 2.4 because administrator approval for restart is pending. Use the supported restart action, maintain power throughout activation, and confirm the running version before testing PIN release.

• Repeat upload does not address the pending activation approval.
• Workstation driver does not activate the printer’s staged firmware.
• A different workstation cannot activate staged device firmware or add a feature absent from the running version.

Question 3

Topic: Networking

An office printer is configured to obtain its IPv4 settings automatically. It must receive the same address after reboots and lease renewals, and the router’s DHCP service must remain responsible for assigning it. The printer’s MAC address is known.

Which configuration best meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. Extend the DHCP lease duration for the printer’s current assignment.

• B. Create a DHCP exclusion for the printer’s current IPv4 address.

• C. Create a DHCP reservation mapping the printer’s MAC address to an IPv4 address.

• D. Configure a static IPv4 address on the printer outside the DHCP pool.

Best answer: C

Explanation: A DHCP reservation associates a device identifier, commonly its MAC address, with a specific IPv4 address in the DHCP configuration. When the printer requests network settings, the DHCP server recognizes it and supplies the reserved address. This keeps address management centralized while giving the printer a predictable address across reboots and lease renewals.

A static address can also be predictable, but the printer would no longer receive that address from DHCP. Lease extensions and exclusions do not create a permanent device-to-address mapping.

• A DHCP exclusion prevents dynamic allocation of an address but does not assign that address to the printer.
• A longer lease delays reassignment but does not ensure the printer always receives the same address.
• A static address provides predictability but violates the requirement that DHCP remain responsible for assignment.

Question 4

Topic: Mobile Devices

A user has wireless earbuds that support both NFC and Bluetooth. The user wants to tap the phone against the charging case to begin setup, then listen while the phone is 3 meters away. Which connection approach best meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. Use Bluetooth for tap-based pairing, then NFC for audio.

• B. Use NFC for both pairing and the ongoing audio stream.

• C. Use NFC for tap-based pairing, then Bluetooth for audio.

• D. Use Bluetooth for both pairing and the ongoing audio stream.

Best answer: C

Explanation: NFC is designed for very short-range exchanges, typically requiring devices to be within a few centimeters. It can simplify accessory setup by transferring pairing information when the phone touches the earbud case. Bluetooth then provides the sustained wireless connection needed to stream audio while the phone is several meters away.

Bluetooth can handle discovery and pairing by itself, but it does not provide the specified tap-based setup behavior. NFC is unsuitable for maintaining the audio stream at the required distance.

• Assigning NFC to audio reverses the technologies’ roles because NFC cannot maintain a 3-meter streaming connection.
• Using NFC for the entire connection fails once the phone moves beyond NFC’s close-proximity range.
• Using Bluetooth for the entire connection supports audio but does not satisfy the requested NFC tap-to-pair experience.

Question 5

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician compares two virtualization platforms:

• Orion: The hypervisor loads directly after firmware and controls the hardware. A management OS runs in a privileged root partition and provides administrative tools.
• DeskVM: The virtualization application launches from Windows and depends on Windows drivers and services for hardware access.

Both platforms run multiple guests and use processor virtualization extensions. Which statements correctly classify the platforms? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. DeskVM is Type 1 because its guests use processor virtualization extensions.

• B. Both are Type 1 because each platform runs multiple guest operating systems.

• C. DeskVM is Type 2 because it relies on the Windows host for hardware access.

• D. Orion is Type 1 because its hypervisor starts directly on the hardware.

• E. Orion is Type 2 because its management partition provides administrative tools.

Correct answers: C and D

Explanation: Hypervisor type depends on the virtualization layer’s relationship to the hardware and host operating system. Orion’s hypervisor starts directly on the hardware, so it is Type 1 even though a management OS supplies a desktop and administrative tools in a privileged partition. DeskVM starts inside Windows and relies on Windows drivers and services, making it Type 2.

Running multiple guests or using processor virtualization extensions does not determine the hypervisor type. The decisive relationship is hardware to hypervisor for Type 1, compared with hardware to host OS to virtualization application for Type 2.

• Management tools: A desktop and retained applications in a management partition do not place a host OS beneath the hypervisor.
• Multiple guests: Both hypervisor types can operate several guest operating systems, so guest count does not classify them.
• Processor extensions: Hardware virtualization support can benefit either type and does not show where the hypervisor resides.

Question 6

Topic: Troubleshooting

A laser multifunction printer should produce 10 collated sets with an upper-left staple. It delivers all sets correctly collated but unstapled.

Evidence:

• Received job details show Staple: Off, although the workstation displayed upper-left stapling.
• The finisher reports ready, and its built-in test produces a properly stapled set.
• The same file and queue work from another workstation.
• The affected workstation’s driver lists the finisher as not installed.

Which action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Configure the affected print driver for the installed finisher and resend.

• B. Replace the staple clincher mechanism and repeat the self-test.

• C. Reseat the finisher interface connection and repeat the self-test.

• D. Reseat the staple cartridge in the finisher and repeat the self-test.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The received job details show that the printer was instructed not to staple, even though stapling was selected at the workstation. The successful built-in test verifies that the finisher can feed and clinch staples properly. The known-good workstation also confirms that the printer, finisher, and shared queue can process the requested finishing feature. Because the affected driver lists the finisher as unavailable, it does not transmit the selected staple setting. Configuring the driver for the installed finisher restores access to the feature and allows the job to carry the correct finishing instruction.

• Reseating the cartridge is unsupported because the built-in test feeds and applies a staple correctly.
• Reseating the interface connection is unnecessary because the printer recognizes the finisher as ready.
• Replacing the clincher is unsupported because the self-test produces a properly formed staple.

Question 7

Topic: Hardware

A technician must connect a bare 2.5-inch SATA SSD to a desktop for data recovery. The desktop has a standard eSATA port, not eSATAp, and internal power leads cannot be routed outside the case. The existing eSATA port must carry the data connection.

Which setup should the technician use?

Options:

• A. Use a passive eSATA-to-SATA cable relying on port power.

• B. Use an eSATAp-to-SATA cable relying on the eSATA port.

• C. Use a powered SATA enclosure with an internal SATA host cable.

• D. Use an AC-powered SATA enclosure with an eSATA host connection.

Best answer: D

Explanation: SATA and eSATA provide storage data connections, but a standard eSATA port does not supply drive power. The bare SSD therefore needs a separate, compatible power source. An AC-powered SATA enclosure can provide that power while connecting the drive’s SATA data interface to the desktop’s eSATA port.

Internal SATA and external eSATA also use different physical connectors and cable designs. eSATAp is a separate powered variant, so its power capability cannot be assumed when the computer has standard eSATA. The key distinction is that the data connection and drive power connection serve separate roles.

• A passive eSATA-to-SATA cable provides a data path but cannot power the SSD from standard eSATA.
• An eSATAp cable cannot obtain power because the desktop lacks an eSATAp port.
• An internal SATA host cable does not mate with the desktop’s external eSATA connector.

Question 8

Topic: Networking

A small office uses the topology shown. The desktop, NAS, and tablet are on the same IPv4 subnet. The router is their default gateway and the only device connected to the ISP. The access point operates only as a standalone access point.

Which statements accurately describe the device roles and traffic paths? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. The switch translates private addresses before forwarding internet traffic to the router.

• B. Tablet-to-internet traffic crosses the access point, switch, and router.

• C. Desktop-to-NAS traffic is forwarded by the switch without crossing the router.

• D. Tablet-to-internet traffic is routed by the access point directly to the ISP.

• E. Desktop-to-NAS traffic crosses the router because endpoints use separate switch ports.

Correct answers: B and C

Explanation: Devices on the same IPv4 subnet communicate locally without sending their traffic through the default gateway. The desktop resolves the NAS address to a MAC address, and the switch forwards the resulting Ethernet frames toward the NAS port.

Traffic destined for the internet must reach the router, which connects the LAN to the ISP and commonly performs network address translation. The standalone access point only bridges the tablet’s wireless traffic onto the wired LAN. Consequently, the external path is tablet -> access point -> switch -> router -> ISP. A standalone access point does not replace the router, and an Ethernet switch does not perform address translation in this topology.

• Separate switch ports do not require same-subnet traffic to pass through the default gateway.
• The standalone access point has no direct ISP connection and only bridges wireless traffic to the LAN.
• Address translation is performed by the router here, not by the Ethernet switch.

Question 9

Topic: Troubleshooting

A smartphone was splashed with water and remains powered on and connected to its charger. Moisture is visible in the charging port, and the sealed battery is visibly swollen and warm. There is no smoke or hissing. What should the technician do next?

Options:

• A. Disconnect the charger, power off if safe, isolate the phone, and arrange qualified battery service.

• B. Disconnect the charger, power off, air-dry the phone, and arrange charging-port service before reuse.

• C. Keep the phone powered on for data backup, then disconnect it and arrange qualified battery service.

• D. Disconnect the charger, power off, air-dry the phone, and arrange board cleaning before battery evaluation.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Liquid exposure creates short-circuit and corrosion risks while a device remains energized. A warm, swollen lithium-ion battery adds a potential thermal hazard even when there is no smoke or hissing. External power should be disconnected, and the phone should be shut down if this can be done without unnecessary handling. The device should then be isolated on a nonflammable surface away from combustible materials and referred for manufacturer-supported battery service. Do not charge, test, heat, puncture, or attempt to remove a sealed swollen battery. Data recovery and liquid-damage cleaning are secondary to controlling the immediate battery hazard.

• Charging-port service does not address the more urgent hazard presented by the warm, swollen battery.
• Prioritizing board cleaning delays proper isolation and evaluation of the physically damaged battery.
• Completing a backup keeps the wet device energized, increasing short-circuit and thermal risks.

Question 10

Topic: Hardware

A technician is reusing a working 2.5-inch SAS SSD in a workstation. The drive’s capacity and mounting dimensions meet the requirement, and compatible drive power is available.

Which data connection can support this drive?

Options:

• A. A SATA-only controller with a passive connector adapter

• B. A USB-to-SATA bridge with a passive SAS connector adapter

• C. An NVMe-only PCIe connection with a passive connector adapter

• D. A SAS controller with a compatible SAS drive cable

Best answer: D

Explanation: A drive’s physical size does not establish its storage protocol. A SAS SSD needs a controller that communicates using SAS and a compatible cable or backplane. A passive adapter can change a connector arrangement, but it cannot add SAS protocol support to a SATA, NVMe, or USB-to-SATA controller.

The common compatibility direction is asymmetric: a suitable SAS controller can support SATA drives, but a SATA-only controller cannot operate a SAS drive.

• A SATA-only controller lacks the SAS protocol even if an adapter permits a physical connection.
• An NVMe-only connection uses a different storage protocol and cannot operate the SAS drive through a passive adapter.
• A USB-to-SATA bridge translates between USB and SATA; a passive connector adapter does not add SAS support.

Question 11

Topic: Networking

A small office access point carries staff VLAN 10 and guest VLAN 20 as 802.1Q-tagged traffic over one cable. The technician must preserve VLAN separation and determine whether CRC errors are increasing specifically on the access point’s switch port.

Capabilities and field meanings:

On Switch M, VLAN memberships are already correct. Port mode separates untagged traffic by physical port. Device total combines counters from all ports.

Which configuration meets both requirements?

Options:

• A. Switch M: 802.1Q mode; Device total statistics

• B. Switch M: 802.1Q mode; Per port statistics

• C. Switch U: None mode; statistics Unavailable

• D. Switch M: Port mode; Per port statistics

Best answer: B

Explanation: A managed switch provides the required traffic control and diagnostic visibility. Because the access point carries two tagged VLANs on one cable, the switch must interpret 802.1Q tags rather than separate traffic only by physical port. Per-port statistics are also necessary to associate increasing CRC errors with the access point’s connection.

Port-based VLAN mode could work when networks use separate untagged physical connections, but it does not satisfy this tagged-uplink design. Device-total statistics show that errors exist somewhere on the switch but cannot identify the affected port. An unmanaged switch offers neither configurable VLAN handling nor the required port-level counters.

• Port-based separation does not classify the two 802.1Q-tagged networks carried over the shared access point cable.
• Device-total counters combine all switch activity and cannot isolate CRC errors to the access point port.
• Unmanaged switching lacks the VLAN controls and diagnostic visibility required by the stated network.

Question 12

Topic: Mobile Devices

A technician must share a smartphone’s active cellular data connection with either client below, one at a time. The phone supports Wi-Fi hotspot, Bluetooth tethering, and USB tethering.

• The tablet supports Wi-Fi, but Bluetooth and USB data are disabled.
• The service laptop has no working Wi-Fi or Bluetooth adapter, but its USB data port works.

Which configurations will provide internet access to the clients? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. Connect the laptop by USB and enable USB tethering.

• B. Pair the tablet with the phone and enable Bluetooth tethering.

• C. Enable a secured Wi-Fi hotspot and join the tablet to it.

• D. Connect the tablet by USB and enable USB tethering.

• E. Enable a secured Wi-Fi hotspot and join the laptop to it.

Correct answers: A and C

Explanation: Mobile data can be shared through Wi-Fi hotspot, Bluetooth tethering, or USB tethering, but the selected method must match the client’s available interfaces. The tablet can connect through Wi-Fi, making the phone’s secured hotspot suitable. The laptop cannot use Wi-Fi or Bluetooth, so a data-capable USB connection and USB tethering are required.

A phone’s support for a tethering method does not make that method usable when the client lacks or cannot use the corresponding interface.

• Bluetooth tethering cannot serve the tablet because its Bluetooth capability is disabled.
• USB tethering cannot serve the tablet because USB data is disabled.
• A Wi-Fi hotspot cannot serve the laptop because its Wi-Fi adapter is not working.

Question 13

Topic: Troubleshooting

A conference-room projector should display a laptop image and its internal startup logo. Instead, it produces no projected light or image.

• The power indicator is steady green, and the fan runs.
• The lamp-status indicator is solid red, which the manual defines as a lamp ignition failure.
• The internal menu does not appear, even with the video cable disconnected.
• The same laptop and HDMI cable work with a known-good monitor.
• After cooling and power isolation, manufacturer-supported inspection confirms that the lamp and cover are correctly seated. A supported known-good lamp module restores the startup logo and menu; reinstalling the original module reproduces the failure.

Which focused recovery should the technician perform?

Options:

• A. Replace the projector lamp module using the manufacturer procedure.

• B. Enable the laptop’s external display output and retest.

• C. Select the HDMI input assigned to the connected port.

• D. Replace the HDMI cable with a supported known-good cable.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The missing internal logo and menu localize the problem to the projector rather than the external source. A lamp-ignition indication alone does not prove that the lamp module is defective; seating, interlocks, or the lamp power circuit can also prevent ignition.

The controlled lamp substitution provides the component-level evidence. The projector works with a supported known-good module and fails again with the original, after seating and cover checks. Replace the original lamp using the manufacturer’s cooling, power-isolation, and handling procedure.

• Enabling external display output is unnecessary because the laptop already drives the known-good monitor.
• Replacing the HDMI cable does not address the missing internal menu or lamp ignition indicator.
• Selecting another HDMI input could restore an external signal, but it would not restore internally generated images.

Question 14

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A retailer needs to move its custom web application to the cloud. Its developers must continue managing the application code and data, while the provider manages the infrastructure, operating system, middleware, and runtime.

Which cloud service model best meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. IaaS, with the customer managing the guest OS, runtime, code, and data

• B. SaaS, with the customer configuring the provider’s application and tenant data

• C. PaaS, with the customer managing deployed code and application data

• D. IaaS dedicated hosts, with the customer managing guest software on reserved physical servers

Best answer: C

Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a managed environment for deploying custom applications. The cloud provider manages the infrastructure, operating system, middleware, and runtime, while the customer manages the deployed code and application data. IaaS provides more infrastructure control but normally leaves the guest operating system and software stack to the customer. SaaS removes most application management responsibilities, but the customer uses a complete provider-operated application rather than deploying its own application code.

The requirement to retain control of custom code while avoiding platform maintenance identifies PaaS.

• Standard IaaS requires the customer to maintain the guest operating system and runtime, which conflicts with the stated responsibility boundary.
• SaaS supplies a complete provider-operated application rather than a platform for deploying the retailer’s custom code.
• Dedicated-host IaaS changes tenancy and host placement, but the customer still maintains the guest OS and runtime. Dedicated tenancy does not itself transfer management of the provider hypervisor to the customer.

Question 15

Topic: Hardware

A technician needs a desktop hypervisor to run a 64-bit virtual machine that requires hardware-assisted CPU virtualization. After a UEFI firmware update, the VM no longer starts.

Hardware-assisted virtualization is unavailable.

Evidence:

• The same VM worked before the update.
• The processor supports Intel VT-x.
• The update restored UEFI defaults.
• A host diagnostic reports virtualization as disabled.

Which action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Enable nested virtualization in the VM settings and reboot the host.

• B. Enable additional virtual processors in the VM settings and reboot the host.

• C. Enable processor virtualization extensions in UEFI and reboot the host.

• D. Enable IOMMU device remapping in UEFI and reboot the host.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Hardware-assisted CPU virtualization must be supported by the processor and enabled in system firmware. The processor supports Intel VT-x, and the VM worked before the firmware update. Because that update restored UEFI defaults and the host now reports virtualization as disabled, the focused recovery is to enable the processor virtualization extension in UEFI, save the setting, and reboot.

IOMMU supports device remapping, while nested virtualization exposes virtualization features to a hypervisor running inside a guest. Neither replaces the disabled host CPU extension.

• IOMMU remapping supports device isolation and passthrough, not the CPU virtualization extension required to start this VM.
• Nested virtualization applies when a hypervisor must run inside a VM, not when host virtualization is disabled.
• Additional virtual processors change guest resource allocation but cannot make an unavailable host CPU feature accessible.

Question 16

Topic: Networking

A warehouse wants handheld readers to identify multiple sealed cartons from several meters away. The labels must be inexpensive, operate without batteries, and require no pairing or user tap. Which wireless technology should the support technician recommend?

Options:

• A. Bluetooth Low Energy beacons

• B. Active RFID tracking tags

• C. Passive UHF RFID labels

• D. NFC inventory label tags

Best answer: C

Explanation: Passive UHF RFID is commonly used for inventory identification and tracking. The reader supplies the energy needed by passive tags, so each carton label can operate without a battery. UHF systems can also identify multiple tags from several meters away under suitable conditions.

NFC is designed for intentional interaction at a very short range, typically requiring a device to be brought within a few centimeters. Bluetooth supports longer-range personal-area networking and beacon functions, but Bluetooth devices require a power source. Active RFID also provides longer range, but its tags contain batteries. The combination of batteryless labels, several-meter range, and bulk reading points to passive UHF RFID.

• Active RFID provides substantial range but requires powered tags, conflicting with the batteryless-label requirement.
• NFC labels can be passive but are intended for close tap-style interactions rather than several-meter bulk reads.
• Bluetooth beacons can transmit across several meters but require power and are not passive reader-energized labels.

Question 17

Topic: Troubleshooting

A laser printer supports an optional Tray 2 and detects its accessory connector only during startup. Inspection shows that Tray 2 is attached, but its connector is not fully seated.

Current settings:

InstalledOption.Tray2 controls whether the driver displays Tray 2. Query Device copies the printer’s current accessory status into this field. SourceMap.Auto selects a default among enabled sources but does not enable hardware.

Which correction will make Tray 2 available to users?

Options:

• A. Run Query Device while Absent, then power off, reseat the tray, and restart.

• B. Power off and reseat the tray, restart until Present, then set Auto to Tray2.

• C. Power off and reseat the tray, restart until Present, then run Query Device.

• D. Set InstalledOption.Tray2 to True, set Auto to Tray2, then restart.

Best answer: C

Explanation: An optional printer tray must be recognized at both the hardware and driver levels. Because the connector is not fully seated, the printer reports the tray as Absent. The tray must first be reseated while the printer is powered off and then detected during startup. After the printer reports Present, Query Device copies that status to InstalledOption.Tray2, allowing the driver to display Tray 2. Changing SourceMap.Auto affects default source selection only; it cannot enable an absent accessory or expose a driver-disabled tray.

• Querying while the tray is Absent records the wrong state, and reseating afterward does not refresh the driver.
• Manually exposing Tray 2 in the driver does not correct the printer’s failed physical detection.
• Changing the automatic source after reseating does not change the driver’s False installed-option value.

Question 18

Topic: Hardware

A design workstation cannot finish printer setup. Review the current profile:

• The workstation runs Windows 11 ARM64 and rejects x64 printer packages.
• The printer supports PCL 6 and PostScript 3 emulation.
• The proofing workflow requires PostScript for vector paths and embedded fonts.

Which corrected driver configuration meets both requirements?

Options:

• A. Use an x64 package with the PCL 6 PDL.

• B. Use an ARM64 package with the PostScript PDL.

• C. Use an ARM64 package with the PCL 6 PDL.

• D. Use an x64 package with the PostScript PDL.

Best answer: B

Explanation: Printer-driver selection requires matching both the host platform and the required page description language (PDL). The workstation can load only an ARM64-compatible package, so an x64 driver cannot complete installation even if the printer understands its output. The workflow also specifically requires PostScript for its vector paths and embedded fonts. Although the printer supports PCL 6, selecting it would not satisfy that output requirement.

Hardware support for a PDL does not make every driver package compatible with the workstation.

• The ARM64 and PCL 6 configuration installs correctly but sends the wrong PDL for the proofing workflow.
• The x64 and PostScript configuration selects the required PDL, but its driver package cannot load on the ARM64 workstation.
• The x64 and PCL 6 configuration mismatches both the workstation architecture and the required output language.

Question 19

Topic: Mobile Devices

A technician will replace an intact, non-swollen internal lithium-ion tablet battery. The tablet is plugged in and shows 70% charge. The manufacturer’s service guide specifies reducing charge below 25%, powering off, and using pull-tab adhesive removal. The battery connector is accessible after removing the cover.

Which replacement technique best controls the battery hazards?

Options:

• A. Lower charge below 25%, shut down and unplug, disconnect the battery, then pry it up with an insulated metal tool.

• B. Lower charge below 25%, shut down and unplug, disconnect the battery, then slowly pull the adhesive tabs.

• C. Shut down at 70% and unplug, disconnect the battery, then slowly pull the adhesive tabs.

• D. Lower charge below 25%, shut down and unplug, pull the adhesive tabs, then disconnect the battery.

Best answer: B

Explanation: An intact lithium-ion battery should be discharged to the level specified by the manufacturer before service. After shutting down and removing external power, disconnecting the battery electrically isolates it before removal. Pulling the adhesive tabs slowly, as directed, limits bending, puncture, and crushing risks. These precautions address three separate hazards: stored energy, accidental short circuits, and physical cell damage.

Disconnecting the battery does not eliminate its internal energy, so metal tools can still puncture the cell and cause an internal short circuit.

• Starting at 70% ignores the specified charge reduction and leaves more stored energy available during an accident.
• Removing adhesive before disconnection leaves the battery electrically connected while it is being moved.
• An insulated metal tool can still puncture or deform the cell, causing an internal short circuit.

Question 20

Topic: Networking

A company separates its network host roles. A browser retrieves an inventory dashboard over HTTP. The dashboard then sends a structured query that searches inventory rows by serial number. After finding a match, the system sends an email alert.

Which server role should handle the structured inventory query?

Options:

• A. Have the web server process the inventory lookup.

• B. Have the mail server process the inventory lookup.

• C. Have the database server process the inventory lookup.

• D. Have the file server process the inventory lookup.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Network server roles are distinguished by the requests they process and the resources they provide. The web server delivers the dashboard through HTTP, while the database server handles structured searches against inventory rows. The mail server transfers the resulting alert, and a file server provides access to shared files rather than querying database records.

The request’s target resource, not the user’s original browser activity, determines the appropriate server role.

• The web server delivers the dashboard but does not serve as the host for the structured inventory records.
• The mail server handles the alert after the lookup, not the lookup itself.
• The file server shares files but does not process structured queries against database rows.

Question 21

Topic: Troubleshooting

A smartphone’s charge indicator began behaving unusually after an authorized battery replacement. It jumps from 40% to 15%, but the phone continues running for several hours.

• A manufacturer diagnostic measures 3,850 mAh usable capacity against a 4,000 mAh design rating.
• A repeatable light-use test provides the expected full-shift runtime.
• The battery has no swelling, unusual heat, or charging fault.
• The service guide specifies a charge-gauge synchronization procedure after battery replacement; that procedure was omitted.

Which explanation and response are best supported?

Options:

• A. Processor overheating; reduce the supported workload permanently.

• B. Incorrect charge-gauge reporting; perform the documented synchronization procedure.

• C. Charging-port damage; replace the USB-C assembly.

• D. Severe battery-capacity loss; replace the new battery.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The device delivers expected runtime and measures usable capacity close to its design rating. Those independent observations conflict with severe capacity loss despite the unstable percentage display. The omitted manufacturer procedure instead supports inaccurate charge-gauge reporting.

Use the specified synchronization procedure for this physically normal battery. This is not a general recommendation to deeply discharge batteries, and it would not apply to a swollen or overheating battery.

• Actual capacity and runtime do not support severe degradation.
• Normal charging and no connection symptoms provide no evidence of a damaged port.
• No unusual temperature or workload-dependent shutdown is reported.

Question 22

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician configures cloud synchronization for a desktop and tablet. Both devices support independent settings for the selected Projects folder.

Field semantics:

• SendLocal=On: Uploads local additions, edits, and deletions to cloud storage.
• ApplyRemote=On: Applies cloud additions, edits, and deletions to the device.

Current configuration:

Desktop changes must propagate through the cloud to the tablet. Tablet changes must remain local and not modify the cloud or desktop.

Which focused tablet configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. Keep SendLocal=On and ApplyRemote=On.

• B. Keep SendLocal=On and set ApplyRemote=Off.

• C. Set SendLocal=Off and ApplyRemote=Off.

• D. Set SendLocal=Off and keep ApplyRemote=On.

Best answer: D

Explanation: File synchronization can control each propagation direction independently. The desktop uploads its local changes to cloud storage because SendLocal is enabled. The tablet must keep ApplyRemote enabled to receive those cloud changes. Disabling SendLocal on the tablet prevents its local additions, edits, and deletions from reaching the cloud or propagating to the desktop.

Enabling upload while disabling remote application reverses the required direction. Disabling both settings isolates the tablet, while enabling both creates bidirectional synchronization.

• Reversed direction allows tablet changes to upload but prevents desktop changes from reaching the tablet.
• Synchronization disabled prevents tablet uploads but also blocks required desktop changes.
• Bidirectional synchronization allows tablet changes to modify cloud storage and then propagate to the desktop.

Question 23

Topic: Hardware

A desktop must accept a wired USB keyboard in firmware setup and recovery menus, but booting from USB storage must remain blocked. After firmware defaults are restored, two known-good keyboards work in the operating system on the same external USB port but not before the operating system loads.

Firmware settings:

• External USB ports: Enabled
• Pre-boot USB device support: Disabled
• Boot from USB storage: Disabled

Which firmware configuration should the technician use?

Options:

• A. Enable pre-boot support; keep USB storage boot disabled.

• B. Keep pre-boot support disabled; keep USB storage boot disabled.

• C. Keep pre-boot support disabled; enable USB storage boot.

• D. Enable pre-boot support; enable USB storage boot.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Firmware can control USB device availability before operating-system startup separately from permission to boot from USB storage. Because two known-good keyboards work through the same port after the operating system loads, the evidence does not indicate a defective keyboard or port. The failure is limited to the pre-boot environment and matches the disabled pre-boot USB device setting.

Enabling pre-boot support allows firmware to initialize the keyboard for setup and recovery menus. USB storage boot should remain disabled because keyboard availability does not require permission to boot from mass-storage devices. The two permissions serve different purposes.

• Enabling storage boot does not initialize the keyboard while pre-boot device support remains disabled.
• Enabling both settings restores keyboard access but also permits the prohibited USB storage boot path.
• Leaving both settings disabled preserves the pre-boot keyboard malfunction.

Question 24

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop’s firmware clock resets whenever AC is removed, even after a compatible new RTC coin-cell is installed. The service guide says the RTC should retain time from the coin-cell while unplugged.

• The new cell measures 3.0 V and retains time in an identical working board.
• The affected board’s holder contact is bent away from the cell terminal.
• A manufacturer-supported continuity check finds an open connection at that contact.
• The clock remains correct while AC standby power is present.

Which fault is best supported?

Options:

• A. A depleted replacement coin-cell battery.

• B. An insufficient PSU standby voltage while AC is present.

• C. An incorrect operating-system time-zone setting.

• D. An open connection in the motherboard’s RTC battery holder.

Best answer: D

Explanation: The known-good cell and open holder connection isolate the loss of backup power to the RTC battery contact. AC standby power masks that break until the computer is unplugged.

The cell’s successful use in an identical board argues against depletion. Follow the manufacturer’s repair procedure for the damaged holder or motherboard; replacing more working batteries will not restore an open contact.

• The replacement cell works in the comparison board and meets the stated voltage requirement.
• The error is already present in firmware before the OS starts.
• The clock remains correct with standby power; the failure appears when the battery path must take over.

Question 25

Topic: Networking

A mail server supports SMTP, POP3, and IMAP using their common unencrypted ports. Its mailbox-access fields control client retrieval, while its mail-transfer fields control messages received from peer mail servers.

Users need server-based mailbox and folder synchronization. Peer servers must use the standard SMTP server-to-server transfer port. Which corrected configuration meets both requirements?

Options:

• A. Mailbox access: POP3/110; mail transfer: SMTP/25.

• B. Mailbox access: IMAP/143; mail transfer: SMTP/25.

• C. Mailbox access: IMAP/110; mail transfer: SMTP/25.

• D. Mailbox access: IMAP/143; mail transfer: SMTP/110.

Best answer: B

Explanation: SMTP transfers mail between servers and commonly uses TCP 25 for that role. POP3 and IMAP are retrieval protocols: POP3 commonly uses TCP 110, while IMAP commonly uses TCP 143. IMAP maintains messages, folders, and state on the server, making it appropriate when users need synchronization across clients. Although POP3/110 is a valid protocol-port pairing, POP3 does not provide the required server-based folder synchronization.

The settings must match both each protocol’s common port and its required mail role.

• POP3 retrieval uses the correct port pairing, but it does not satisfy the server-based mailbox and folder synchronization requirement.
• IMAP on TCP 110 assigns the POP3 port to IMAP, even though the retrieval role is appropriate.
• SMTP on TCP 110 assigns a retrieval port to the server-to-server transfer service.

Questions 26-50

Question 26

Topic: Mobile Devices

A technician must share a smartphone’s active cellular connection with two tablets simultaneously and without cables. Both tablets support 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi and Bluetooth, but not 5 GHz Wi-Fi.

Phone sharing capabilities:

• USB tethering supports one cabled device.
• Bluetooth PAN supports one paired client.
• Wi-Fi hotspot supports multiple clients.
• Hotspot band and Max clients apply only to Wi-Fi hotspot mode.

Current settings:

Which corrected configuration meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Mode: Bluetooth PAN; band: 2.4 GHz; max clients: 2

• B. Mode: Wi-Fi hotspot; band: 2.4 GHz; max clients: 2

• C. Mode: Wi-Fi hotspot; band: 5 GHz; max clients: 2

• D. Mode: Wi-Fi hotspot; band: 2.4 GHz; max clients: 1

Best answer: B

Explanation: A mobile hotspot shares the phone’s cellular internet connection by creating a Wi-Fi network for other devices. Because both tablets support only 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi, the hotspot must use that band. The client limit must also be at least two so both tablets can connect simultaneously.

Bluetooth PAN does not meet the requirement because the phone supports only one paired client in that mode. Its hotspot band and client-limit fields would also be inactive. The closest alternative uses the correct sharing mode and client limit but selects an unsupported 5 GHz band.

• Unsupported band: A 5 GHz hotspot cannot be joined by tablets that support only 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi.
• Single Bluetooth client: Bluetooth PAN supports only one paired client on the stated phone.
• Insufficient client limit: A maximum of one Wi-Fi client prevents simultaneous access by both tablets.

Question 27

Topic: Hardware

A newly provisioned desktop must reject untrusted boot software and provide TPM-backed key protection. After a technician cleared firmware keys, the platform security check fails. No encrypted user data has been deployed.

Evidence:

• Firmware TPM 2.0: enabled and self-test passed
• Boot mode: UEFI; legacy compatibility disabled
• Secure Boot setting: enabled; effective status: inactive
• Platform Key and trusted-signature database: empty
• The manufacturer provides an approved current key set that trusts the installed bootloader and directs technicians to enroll it when these databases are empty.

Which action addresses the failed security requirement?

Options:

• A. Clear the TPM and leave the Secure Boot databases empty.

• B. Enable CPU virtualization and leave the trust databases empty.

• C. Enroll the approved Secure Boot key set and verify enforcement after restart.

• D. Disable Secure Boot and retain the functioning TPM.

Best answer: C

Explanation: A configured Secure Boot switch does not establish that signature enforcement is active. This machine has no enrolled platform key or trusted-signature database, and its effective status confirms that enforcement is inactive. The approved current key set supplies the manufacturer-supported trust material for the installed bootloader.

TPM key protection is already functioning. Its measurements and protected storage do not substitute for Secure Boot’s decision about which boot software may execute.

• Clear the TPM does not populate Secure Boot trust databases.
• Disable Secure Boot abandons the required boot-verification control.
• Enable virtualization supports hypervisors rather than boot-signature enforcement.

Question 28

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop shuts down with a burning smell. The technician disconnects AC power and follows the manufacturer’s external inspection procedure. The PSU outlet grille has soot, and its adjacent casing is heat-discolored. The motherboard capacitors and internal low-voltage connectors show no damage. The service guide identifies the PSU as a sealed field-replaceable unit.

Which response most directly addresses the observed damage?

Options:

• A. Open the PSU and replace its visibly damaged internal components.

• B. Keep the system disconnected and replace the complete power supply with a compatible unit.

• C. Replace the motherboard because the computer shut down.

• D. Reconnect AC and run the PSU self-test before choosing a repair.

Best answer: B

Explanation: Burning odor together with soot and heat discoloration localizes visible damage to the PSU. Keep power disconnected and replace the sealed unit through the supported service process.

Shutdown alone would not distinguish the PSU from other components. Here, physical inspection provides the discriminator. The replacement must have the required connectors and capacity, and its own approved modular cables must be used where applicable.

• A powered self-test adds electrical stress to a visibly heat-damaged supply.
• No supplied finding identifies motherboard damage.
• Opening the sealed supply is outside the supported repair and exposes stored-energy hazards.

Question 29

Topic: Networking

A technician reviews traffic classifiers on a SOHO gateway. Classifier names are descriptive only. Both matches TCP and UDP, and a hyphen defines an inclusive destination-port range.

Which correction aligns all classifiers with their intended traffic?

Options:

• A. Set DirectoryLookup to 389 and ModernFileShare to 139.

• B. Set DirectoryLookup to 137-139 and ModernFileShare to 445.

• C. Set DirectoryLookup to 445 and ModernFileShare to 389.

• D. Set DirectoryLookup to 389 and ModernFileShare to 445.

Best answer: D

Explanation: LDAP commonly uses port 389 for directory queries. Direct-hosted SMB/CIFS uses TCP port 445, whereas SMB carried through the legacy NetBIOS session service can use TCP port 139. NetBIOS over TCP/IP, also called NetBT, uses the 137-139 range for name, datagram, and session services.

The existing LegacyWindows range is therefore aligned with NetBT. The LDAP and direct-hosted SMB values are reversed and must be exchanged. Port 139 would not meet the explicit requirement for direct-hosted SMB.

• Assigning port 139 to file sharing selects the legacy NetBIOS session path rather than direct-hosted SMB.
• Assigning 137-139 to directory lookup confuses NetBT services with LDAP traffic.
• Retaining 445 for LDAP and 389 for SMB preserves the original service mismatch.

Question 30

Topic: Troubleshooting

A conference-room projector shuts down after 35–45 minutes but restarts after cooling. Video remains stable until shutdown.

• The temperature warning illuminates immediately before shutdown.
• The intake filter is heavily coated with dust, and the intake has little clearance.
• The filter has not been serviced in 18 months.
• Lamp usage is 1,200 of its rated 5,000 hours.
• Other devices on the same power strip remain on.

Which corrective action most directly addresses the supported cause?

Options:

• A. Move the projector to a dedicated outlet and replace the power strip.

• B. Replace the projector lamp and reset its operating-hours counter.

• C. Clean or replace the air filter and clear the intake vents.

• D. Replace the HDMI cable and secure both video connections.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The evidence indicates thermal protection caused by restricted airflow. A dust-coated filter and inadequate intake clearance prevent effective cooling, so internal temperature rises during operation. The temperature warning appears before shutdown, and operation resumes after cooling, which is characteristic of an overheating projector protecting its components. Cleaning or replacing the filter and restoring ventilation directly address the supported cause using manufacturer-approved maintenance procedures.

The lamp remains well within its rated operating life, while stable video and uninterrupted power to nearby devices make the signal cable and power strip less likely causes.

• Lamp replacement is unsupported because lamp usage is well below its stated rating and the temperature warning identifies a heat condition.
• HDMI replacement addresses signal loss, but the video remains stable until the entire projector shuts down.
• Power-strip replacement is unsupported because other connected devices remain powered and the projector restarts after cooling.

Question 31

Topic: Hardware

A warehouse’s 24-pin impact printer leaves the same horizontal row of dots blank across every printed line. A newly installed model-compatible fabric ribbon does not change the output, and a self-test confirms that one print wire is not firing. Which maintenance action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Power off the printer, let the head cool, and install a model-compatible 24-pin printhead.

• B. Power off the printer, unload the forms, and install a model-compatible platen roller.

• C. Power off the printer, remove the cartridge, and install another model-compatible fabric ribbon.

• D. Power off the printer, let the head cool, and install a connector-matching 9-pin printhead.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Impact printers form characters by striking print wires through an inked ribbon. A consistently blank horizontal dot row, confirmed by a wire that does not fire, identifies a printhead failure rather than an exhausted ribbon or paper-pressure problem. The replacement printhead must match the printer model, pin count, mounting, and electrical interface; connector appearance alone is insufficient. Before removing the head, disconnect power and allow it to cool because repeated operation can make the assembly hot. A fresh compatible ribbon cannot restore a failed print wire, while platen problems generally cause broader pressure or print-density defects.

• A 9-pin head does not match the printer’s 24-pin mechanism, even if its connector appears compatible.
• Another ribbon cannot restore a print wire that the self-test confirms is not firing.
• A platen replacement addresses paper support or pressure defects, not one consistently absent dot row.

Question 32

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician must run all three VMs simultaneously at their minimum settings. The host supports a compatible 10-core processor, up to 64 GB of RAM, and a 1 TB datastore.

Which single supported correction makes the host meet all requirements?

Options:

• A. Expand usable datastore capacity from 800 GB to 1 TB.

• B. Replace the processor with the supported 10-core model.

• C. Raise the guest CPU allocation ratio from 2:1 to 3:1.

• D. Increase installed memory from 32 GB to 40 GB.

Best answer: B

Explanation: Host reservations must be deducted before comparing available resources with the combined guest requirements. The current CPU supports (8 - 2) × 2 = 12 guest vCPUs, but the VMs require 14. A 10-core processor supports (10 - 2) × 2 = 16 vCPUs under the permitted overcommit rule. Memory is already sufficient because 28 GB remains after reservation and the guests require 26 GB. Storage is also sufficient because 700 GB remains and the guests require 650 GB.

The CPU allocation limit is the only mismatch; virtual CPUs do not require a one-to-one physical-core mapping when overcommit is permitted.

• Additional memory does not resolve the 12-vCPU capacity limit because the existing 28 GB already supports the guests.
• Additional storage is unnecessary because 700 GB is available for the 650 GB requirement.
• Higher overcommit would exceed the stated maximum CPU allocation ratio.

Question 33

Topic: Networking

A small office already has a functioning shared print queue. Staff now need a common location for project documents, with folder permissions for separate teams and files available when individual workstations are off. The office has an always-on host and suitable storage. Which additional configuration supplies the required resource?

Options:

• A. Configure a web proxy and keep cached copies of each team’s project documents.

• B. Configure a syslog collector and store each team’s uploaded project documents as events.

• C. Configure another print queue and allow each team to manage its submitted documents.

• D. Configure file-sharing services and publish folders with the required team permissions.

Best answer: D

Explanation: A file server provides a shared storage location that clients can use according to assigned folder and file permissions. Hosting the shares on the always-on system avoids dependence on an employee workstation. The existing print server performs a different role: its queue receives and processes print jobs, rather than providing a collaborative file repository.

• A second print queue manages output jobs, not a shared project-folder structure.
• A syslog collector stores event messages for operational review; it does not provide the requested shared document folders.
• A web proxy handles web requests and caching; a cache is not the team’s managed file repository.

Question 34

Topic: Mobile Devices

A technician is selecting a single-cable accessory for a compatible laptop. The user requires:

• One low-profile PCIe capture card
• Two 4K external displays
• Gigabit Ethernet
• At least 90 W of laptop charging

Each accessory uses one cable to the laptop.

Which accessory best meets all requirements?

Options:

• A. CompactDock

• B. VideoDock

• C. PowerReplicator

• D. ExpandDock

Best answer: D

Explanation: A docking station can provide broader expansion capabilities than a port replicator, which primarily makes existing interfaces easier to access. The accessory must satisfy every listed requirement. ExpandDock has a PCIe slot for the capture card, supports two 4K displays and Gigabit Ethernet, and supplies 100 W to the laptop. Although the PowerReplicator handles the displays, network connection, and charging, it cannot accept the PCIe card. The other docking stations each miss one required capability.

• VideoDock supports only one external 4K display instead of two.
• PowerReplicator provides the required connections and power but has no PCIe expansion slot.
• CompactDock supplies only 65 W, below the laptop’s 90 W requirement.

Question 35

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop powers on but shows no splash screen. Its solid DRAM diagnostic LED remains lit. The platform reference states that this indicates POST stopped during memory initialization.

Tests using parts from an identical working desktop show:

• The original DIMMs work in the other desktop.
• A known-good DIMM fails in every supported slot.
• A known-good processor and power supply do not change the indication.

Which component should the technician replace?

Options:

• A. Replace the power supply unit.

• B. Replace the motherboard assembly.

• C. Replace the installed processor.

• D. Replace the installed memory modules.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The diagnostic LED identifies the POST stage that failed, not necessarily the defective component. Memory initialization involves the DIMMs, motherboard slots and traces, and the processor’s memory controller. The original DIMMs pass in another identical computer, while known-good memory fails in every supported slot. Substituting a known-good processor also rules out its memory controller, and the power-supply substitution eliminates unstable power as the cause. These results isolate the motherboard’s memory circuitry or socket connections.

POST indicators should always be interpreted using the supplied platform reference and confirmed with compatible known-good components.

• Replacing the memory is unsupported because the original DIMMs pass elsewhere and known-good memory produces the same failure.
• Replacing the processor is unsupported because a compatible known-good processor does not change the POST indication.
• Replacing the power supply is unsupported because a known-good unit does not change the startup behavior.

Question 36

Topic: Hardware

A server has a maximum DC load of 1,000 W. Its hot-swappable power supplies share the load and automatically redistribute it after one module fails. Each module can continuously provide its rated output.

Which power-supply arrangement maintains the required load after any one module fails?

Options:

• A. Install four 300 W power-supply modules.

• B. Install three 500 W power-supply modules.

• C. Install three 450 W power-supply modules.

• D. Install two 900 W power-supply modules.

Best answer: B

Explanation: A redundant power arrangement must support the full load using only the modules remaining after one failure. Multiply each module’s rating by one fewer than the installed module count. Three 500 W modules leave two operational modules after a failure, providing exactly 1,000 W. The other arrangements have enough combined capacity during normal operation but leave only 900 W after losing one module.

Total installed wattage alone does not establish fault tolerance; remaining capacity determines whether the load can continue operating.

• Two 900 W modules leave one 900 W module, which cannot support the 1,000 W load.
• Four 300 W modules leave three modules providing only 900 W.
• Three 450 W modules leave two modules providing only 900 W.

Question 37

Topic: Networking

A technician must configure a workstation with a static address so it can reach a local printer and internet websites by name.

Network details:

• Router and DNS forwarder: 192.168.40.1/24
• Printer: 192.168.40.25/24
• Available workstation address: 192.168.40.80

Which static configuration should the technician apply?

Options:

• A. IP 192.168.40.80; mask 255.255.255.0; gateway 192.168.40.25; DNS 192.168.40.1

• B. IP 192.168.40.80; mask 255.255.255.0; gateway 192.168.40.1; DNS 192.168.40.25

• C. IP 192.168.40.80; mask 255.255.255.0; gateway 192.168.40.1; DNS 192.168.40.1

• D. IP 192.168.41.80; mask 255.255.255.0; gateway 192.168.40.1; DNS 192.168.40.1

Best answer: C

Explanation: With a 255.255.255.0 mask, devices are on the same local network when their first three address octets match. The workstation, printer, and router must therefore use the 192.168.40.x network for direct local communication. The default gateway must be the router’s LAN address because it forwards traffic to external networks. DNS must point to the stated DNS forwarder so website names can be resolved. A printer address cannot substitute for either the router or DNS service.

• Using 192.168.40.25 as the gateway incorrectly assigns the printer to route external traffic.
• Using 192.168.40.25 for DNS incorrectly directs name-resolution requests to the printer.
• Assigning 192.168.41.80/24 places the workstation on a different subnet from its gateway.

Question 38

Topic: Troubleshooting

After firmware defaults are restored, a desktop intermittently powers off during CPU rendering.

Evidence:

• CPU package reaches 97°C before a thermal shutdown.
• System board reaches 41°C; airflow paths and cooler mounting pass inspection.
• A known-good PSU produces the same symptom.

Source selects the temperature sensor used by a curve. The installed fans support PWM, and the pump requires fixed 100% operation. Which focused configuration correction should the technician make?

Options:

• A. Change SYS_FAN Control to Fixed 100%; retain its PWM mode.

• B. Change PUMP Control to CPU Package; apply the CPU_FAN curve.

• C. Change CPU_FAN Mode to DC; retain its System Board curve.

• D. Change CPU_FAN Source to CPU Package; retain its PWM curve.

Best answer: D

Explanation: The radiator fans are controlled by the wrong temperature source. Their PWM curve follows the system-board sensor, which reaches only 41°C while the CPU reaches 97°C. Consequently, the radiator fans remain at 800 RPM instead of increasing toward their 2,000 RPM maximum. Selecting CPU Package as the CPU_FAN source makes radiator airflow respond directly to processor heat. The pump already runs at its required fixed speed, the exhaust fan is nearly at maximum, and a known-good PSU produces the same shutdown. These observations support a cooling-control mismatch rather than a power fault or failed pump.

• DC fan mode changes how fan speed is controlled but leaves the incorrect temperature source unchanged.
• Pump temperature curve replaces the required fixed pump operation even though its measured speed is normal.
• Maximum exhaust speed offers little additional airflow and does not correct the slow radiator fans.

Question 39

Topic: Hardware

A technician must replace the cable between a cable television wall outlet and a cable modem. Both ports are round, threaded, and accept the cable’s center conductor as the signal pin. Which cable and connector type should the technician use?

Options:

• A. 75-ohm coaxial cable with BNC connectors

• B. 75-ohm coaxial cable with F-type connectors

• C. Fiber-optic cable with SC connectors

• D. Twisted-pair cable with 8P8C connectors

Best answer: B

Explanation: Cable television and cable internet services commonly use 75-ohm coaxial cable terminated with F-type connectors. An F-type connector screws onto a threaded port, and the cable’s solid center conductor extends through the connector to act as the signal pin. This matches the described wall outlet and cable modem ports. BNC also supports coaxial cable, but it uses a bayonet-style locking mechanism rather than the described threaded connection.

• BNC connector uses a twist-and-lock bayonet coupling rather than screwing onto a threaded television-style port.
• 8P8C connector terminates twisted-pair Ethernet cable and plugs into a rectangular modular jack.
• SC connector terminates fiber-optic cable and does not use a metallic center conductor.

Question 40

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

Four independent healthcare clinics jointly fund a cloud environment operated by a third-party provider. Access is restricted to the participating clinics, which share the same regulatory and security requirements. The environment is not combined with another cloud deployment.

Which cloud deployment model best meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. A public cloud deployment

• B. A community cloud deployment

• C. A hybrid cloud deployment

• D. A private cloud deployment

Best answer: B

Explanation: A community cloud is designed for a specific group of organizations with shared requirements, such as regulatory obligations, security policies, or a common mission. It may be jointly owned or operated by one or more community members or by a third party. Here, several independent clinics share funding and access while limiting use to participating organizations.

A private cloud serves one organization exclusively. A public cloud offers services to a broader customer base, and a hybrid cloud combines distinct cloud deployments. The shared community membership is the deciding characteristic.

• Public cloud serves a broad customer population rather than restricting the environment to organizations with shared requirements.
• Private cloud provides exclusive use to one organization, not several independent clinics.
• Hybrid cloud requires distinct cloud environments to be combined, which the scenario explicitly excludes.

Question 41

Topic: Networking

A technician reviews a managed switch. All endpoints send untagged frames, and no inter-VLAN routing is configured. For an access-mode port, Access VLAN identifies the logical local network for its traffic.

Design devices must use VLAN 10, Accounting devices must use VLAN 20, and the groups must remain separated. Which single change meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. Set Gi0/2 Access VLAN from 20 to 10.

• B. Set Gi0/1 Access VLAN from 10 to 20.

• C. Set Gi0/3 Access VLAN from 20 to 10.

• D. Set Gi0/4 Access VLAN from 20 to 10.

Best answer: A

Explanation: VLAN membership determines which logical local network and broadcast domain contains an access port. Devices in the same VLAN can exchange local switched traffic, while devices in different VLANs require a routing function to communicate.

The Design PC is already in VLAN 10, but the Design printer is incorrectly in VLAN 20 with both Accounting devices. Assigning Gi0/2 to VLAN 10 places the Design devices together while leaving the Accounting devices together in VLAN 20. Although all ports use the same physical switch, their VLAN assignments keep the two groups logically separated.

• Moving the Design PC to VLAN 20 would connect both Design devices but merge them with Accounting.
• Moving the Accounting PC to VLAN 10 would separate it from its printer and join it to the Design PC.
• Moving the Accounting printer to VLAN 10 would separate it from its PC and join it to the Design PC.

Question 42

Topic: Troubleshooting

A replacement active stylus pairs with a tablet but cannot write anywhere. Testing shows:

• The tablet digitizer supports protocol P; the replacement stylus supports protocol Q only.
• Bluetooth shows the stylus connected for its shortcut button, with 90% battery.
• A borrowed protocol P stylus writes in the operating system’s handwriting panel.
• The drawing application has pen input disabled and finger navigation enabled.

Which actions directly address the observed problems? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. Remove and pair the replacement stylus again.

• B. Replace the tablet’s pen digitizer assembly.

• C. Recharge the replacement stylus to full capacity.

• D. Enable pen input in the drawing application’s settings.

• E. Use a stylus that supports digitizer protocol P.

Correct answers: D and E

Explanation: An active stylus must support the tablet digitizer’s protocol; Bluetooth pairing alone does not establish inking compatibility. Bluetooth may connect auxiliary features such as shortcut buttons while the stylus remains unable to communicate with the digitizer. The borrowed protocol P stylus working in the handwriting panel confirms that the tablet can detect compatible pen input. Its failure only in the drawing application points to the application’s disabled pen-input mode. Therefore, resolving the full problem requires compatible stylus hardware and an application mode that accepts pen input.

• Full recharging is unsupported because the stylus reports 90% power and has a demonstrated protocol mismatch.
• Re-pairing cannot change the replacement stylus from protocol Q to protocol P.
• Digitizer replacement is unwarranted because the borrowed protocol P stylus works in the handwriting panel.

Question 43

Topic: Mobile Devices

A user’s wall charger and desktop both have rectangular USB Type-A receptacles. The new phone has a 24-pin, oval, reversible receptacle that supports charging and USB data.

Which cable should the technician provide for charging and wired data transfer?

Options:

• A. A USB-A-to-microUSB data-and-charging cable

• B. A USB-A-to-Lightning data-and-charging cable

• C. A USB-A-to-miniUSB data-and-charging cable

• D. A USB-A-to-USB-C data-and-charging cable

Best answer: D

Explanation: USB-C uses a small, oval, reversible 24-pin connector. Because the charger and desktop provide USB Type-A receptacles, the cable needs USB-A on one end and USB-C on the other. It must also support data rather than charging alone to transfer files. Connector shape identifies physical compatibility, while the stated device and cable capabilities establish charging and data support.

MicroUSB, miniUSB, and Lightning connectors cannot fit a USB-C receptacle even when their cables support the same general functions.

• MicroUSB cable uses a smaller, asymmetrical connector that does not fit the phone’s USB-C receptacle.
• Lightning cable uses Apple’s proprietary reversible connector rather than the specified 24-pin USB-C connector.
• MiniUSB cable uses a larger trapezoidal legacy connector commonly associated with older peripherals.

Question 44

Topic: Hardware

A technician reviews a gaming monitor configuration. The user requires the panel’s native resolution and an actual refresh rate of at least 120 Hz while keeping the existing HDMI connection.

Field meanings:

• Desktop mode: resolution rendered by the GPU.
• Active signal mode: resolution and refresh rate transmitted to the monitor.

The current desktop mode is 2560x1440, but the active signal mode is 3840x2160 at 60 Hz. Which revised configuration meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Desktop 2560x1440; active 2560x1440 at 144 Hz

• B. Desktop 1920x1080; active 1920x1080 at 144 Hz

• C. Desktop 2560x1440; active 2560x1440 at 165 Hz

• D. Desktop 2560x1440; active 3840x2160 at 120 Hz

Best answer: A

Explanation: The active signal mode identifies what the monitor actually receives. With the current HDMI connection, the monitor can receive its native 2560x1440 resolution at up to 144 Hz. That mode satisfies both the native-resolution requirement and the minimum actual refresh rate of 120 Hz.

The monitor’s advertised 165 Hz capability applies to its DisplayPort link, not the existing HDMI link. A high desktop-mode value also cannot overcome a lower active signal rate because the transmitted timing determines the monitor’s actual refresh. The correction must therefore match the refresh rate to both the required visual task and the current signal path’s capabilities.

• Selecting 165 Hz exceeds the stated capability of the current HDMI link, even though DisplayPort supports that rate.
• Selecting 4K at 120 Hz exceeds the HDMI link’s stated 60 Hz limit for that signal resolution.
• Selecting 1080p at 144 Hz meets the refresh requirement but does not preserve the panel’s native resolution.

Question 45

Topic: Networking

A small office uses Zigbee leak sensors that report only to a local hub. The hub can trigger a local siren using its stored automation rule. It connects through a SOHO router to a vendor-hosted service. A mobile app has no local-control mode and exchanges status and commands only through that service.

Which statements accurately describe the system’s connectivity dependencies? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. Mobile app commands can reach the hub over the LAN when the vendor service is unavailable.

• B. Vendor service commands can reach the local siren while the router WAN is unavailable.

• C. Remote app updates require both the hub and app to reach the vendor service.

• D. Local siren automation can continue during a WAN outage if the hub remains active.

• E. Sensor reports can reach the vendor service directly when the local hub is unavailable.

Correct answers: C and D

Explanation: IoT functions depend on the path used to perform them. Remote monitoring and commands pass through the vendor-hosted service, so both the app and hub need connectivity to that service. The local automation rule follows a different path: sensor to hub to siren. A WAN outage disconnects the hosted service but does not necessarily interrupt Zigbee communication or the hub’s local siren control.

The sensors cannot bypass their gateway because they use only Zigbee, and the app cannot switch to direct LAN control because that capability is explicitly absent. Hosted connectivity is therefore required for remote functions, not for the stated local automation.

• Direct sensor upload fails because the Zigbee-only sensors rely on the hub as their gateway.
• LAN app control fails because the app supports only vendor-hosted communication, not direct hub access.
• Cloud command delivery fails because a WAN outage removes the path from the hosted service to the site.

Question 46

Topic: Troubleshooting

A laptop connects to a wired LAN but cannot open websites by name.

DHCP lease: 192.168.40.27/24, gateway 192.168.40.1, DNS 192.168.40.1

Test results:

• Pinging 192.168.40.1 succeeds.
• Pinging a known-working public IP address succeeds.
• Resolving example.com through 192.168.40.1 times out.
• A tablet on the same LAN resolves example.com through 192.168.40.1.

Which conclusions are supported by the evidence? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. The laptop’s addressing supports communication with its default gateway.

• B. The router’s DNS proxy is unavailable to every client on the local network.

• C. The laptop reaches the tested internet IP, but its DNS query path fails.

• D. The router’s WAN connection is unavailable to devices on the local network.

• E. The laptop lacks a default route for destinations outside its subnet.

Correct answers: A and C

Explanation: The successful gateway ping confirms that the laptop has usable local addressing and can communicate with its configured gateway. Reaching a known-working public IP demonstrates that the tested routed path through the gateway and WAN is functioning. The failure occurs when the laptop tries to translate a hostname into an IP address, so the limited connectivity involves its DNS query path.

The tablet successfully uses the same DNS address, which shows that the router’s DNS service is not unavailable to every LAN client. The evidence does not isolate the exact laptop-side DNS component, but it does separate name-resolution failure from basic IP connectivity.

• A missing default route conflicts with the successful ping to a public IP destination.
• A failed WAN connection conflicts with the successful response from the tested public IP address.
• A DNS proxy outage affecting every client conflicts with the tablet successfully using that DNS address.

Question 47

Topic: Hardware

A workstation uses six equal-capacity SSDs for a high volume of small random writes. Its controller is currently set to SINGLE_PARITY.

Requirements:

• Remain available after any single-drive failure
• Provide at least three drive equivalents of usable capacity
• Avoid parity calculations during writes

Controller field values:

Which focused correction best aligns the configuration with the requirements?

Options:

• A. Keep Array mode as SINGLE_PARITY (RAID 5).

• B. Set Array mode to FAST_STRIPE (RAID 0).

• C. Set Array mode to MIRRORED_STRIPES (RAID 10).

• D. Set Array mode to DUAL_PARITY (RAID 6).

Best answer: C

Explanation: RAID 10 combines mirroring with striping. With six equal drives, it supplies three drive equivalents of usable capacity, remains available after any single-drive failure, and does not calculate parity. These characteristics fit a write-heavy workload that requires redundancy and at least half of the raw capacity.

RAID 5 and RAID 6 provide more usable capacity, but both perform parity work during writes. RAID 0 offers all raw capacity and strong write performance, but it provides no fault tolerance. The decisive requirement is avoiding parity while retaining single-drive fault tolerance.

• RAID 0 avoids parity but cannot remain available after a drive failure.
• RAID 5 meets the capacity and fault requirements but calculates single parity during writes.
• RAID 6 exceeds the fault requirement but performs dual-parity calculations during writes.

Question 48

Topic: Mobile Devices

A company enrolls employees’ personal phones in mobile device management. The phones support a separate managed work container.

Requirement: Enforce company settings within the work container and remove company data upon departure without managing or erasing personal content.

Current configuration:

ownership: BYOD
management_scope: DEVICE
retire_action: FULL_ERASE

Which configuration change meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Use DEVICE with REMOVE_MANAGED.

• B. Use DEVICE with FULL_ERASE.

• C. Use WORK_CONTAINER with FULL_ERASE.

• D. Use WORK_CONTAINER with REMOVE_MANAGED.

Best answer: D

Explanation: BYOD management should separate company control from the employee’s personal environment. Setting management_scope to WORK_CONTAINER limits company policies to managed apps, accounts, and data. Setting retire_action to REMOVE_MANAGED performs a selective removal when the employee leaves, preserving personal content.

Device-wide management and full erasure are more appropriate for corporate-owned devices when the organization is authorized to control and retire the entire device. Either of those settings would exceed the stated BYOD requirement.

• Device-wide scope applies management policies beyond the work container, conflicting with the requirement to leave personal content unmanaged.
• Full erasure removes personal content as well as company data, exceeding the authorized retirement action.
• Full corporate control combines both mismatches and is suited to organization-owned rather than personal devices.

Question 49

Topic: Troubleshooting

A laptop is connected to a projector by one HDMI cable. Video appears, but presentation audio plays through the laptop. The projector’s internal speaker must be used without adding a cable.

Audio Select does not automatically follow the video source. Which corrected configuration meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Output: Headphone Jack; Audio Select: Audio In

• B. Output: Internal Speakers; Audio Select: HDMI1

• C. Output: HDMI Display; Audio Select: Audio In

• D. Output: HDMI Display; Audio Select: HDMI1

Best answer: D

Explanation: The complete audio path must align from source to destination. The laptop must send presentation audio to the available HDMI audio device rather than its internal speakers. The same HDMI cable can then carry video and stereo PCM audio. At the projector, Audio Select must route HDMI1 audio to the internal speaker.

The existing volume settings are not the cause because both devices are unmuted and set above 40%. Selecting only the correct laptop output or only the correct projector input leaves the other end of the path mismatched. An analog configuration would require a separate audio cable.

• Keeping Internal Speakers selected continues to play audio locally even when the projector listens to HDMI1.
• Keeping Audio In selected makes the projector listen for an analog signal that is not connected.
• Pairing Headphone Jack with Audio In requires an analog cable, which the stated configuration does not include.

Question 50

Topic: Networking

An organization reviews a message sent through its cloud mail service.

SPF checks the sending IP against the MAIL FROM domain’s policy. The DMARC s settings require exact domain alignment with the visible From domain. Which assessment is correct?

Options:

• A. SPF and DKIM pass; DMARC passes because the SPF subdomain satisfies strict alignment.

• B. SPF fails because MAIL FROM differs from From; DKIM passes and supplies the DMARC pass.

• C. SPF and DKIM pass; DMARC passes through aligned DKIM, and aggregate reporting remains configured.

• D. SPF and DKIM pass; DMARC fails because SPF is unaligned, and rejection is requested.

Best answer: C

Explanation: SPF authorizes the sending IP for mail.example.com, and the DKIM signature validates for example.com. Both authentication checks pass. Strict SPF alignment fails because mail.example.com is not exactly example.com. Strict DKIM alignment succeeds because the signing domain matches the visible From domain.

DMARC needs one passing, aligned mechanism, so DKIM supplies a DMARC pass. The p=reject policy concerns DMARC failures; it does not request rejection of this passing message. Other recipient filtering can still apply, and aggregate reporting remains requested.

• Requiring aligned SPF as well as aligned DKIM incorrectly demands both mechanisms.
• A subdomain is not an exact match under strict alignment.
• A difference from the visible From domain does not itself make SPF authentication fail.

Questions 51-75

Question 51

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A cloud vendor assigns each customer a separate subscription, admin console, and data-access boundary. However, the application and storage run on pooled infrastructure also used by unrelated customers. Access controls prevent customers from viewing one another’s data.

Which interpretation accurately describes this arrangement?

Options:

• A. A dedicated service using infrastructure reserved exclusively for the company

• B. A shared internal resource used only by the company’s departments

• C. A multitenant service using shared infrastructure with logical tenant isolation

• D. A single-tenant deployment with an application instance reserved for the company

Best answer: C

Explanation: Multitenancy allows multiple customer organizations, called tenants, to use the same cloud service and underlying resource pool while maintaining separate data and administrative boundaries. The vendor’s pooled application and storage infrastructure is shared, but access controls provide logical isolation between customers.

Dedicated resources would be assigned exclusively to one customer. An internal resource shared by several departments may still belong to a single tenant, so sharing alone does not establish multitenancy. The deciding fact is that unrelated customers use the pooled service while remaining logically separated.

• Dedicated infrastructure does not apply because the underlying application and storage resources are also used by unrelated customers.
• Internal sharing describes users or departments within one organization, not separate customer organizations with isolated boundaries.
• Single-tenant deployment would reserve the service instance for one customer rather than serving unrelated customers from the pooled platform.

Question 52

Topic: Hardware

A technician is completing a desktop build. The 24-pin motherboard power cable and case power switch are already connected. The remaining required connections are CPU power and the drive-activity LED.

Board labels:

• CPU_PWR1: 8-pin EPS12V
• F_PANEL pin 1: HDD_LED+
• F_PANEL pin 3: HDD_LED-
• F_PANEL pins 5 and 7: RESET_SW

The PSU has an 8-pin CPU/EPS lead and a 6+2-pin PCI-E lead. The HDD LED has a red positive lead and a white negative lead.

Which connections should the technician make? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. Connect the 6+2-pin PCI-E lead to CPU_PWR1.

• B. Connect the red HDD LED lead to pin 1 and white lead to pin 3.

• C. Connect the 8-pin CPU/EPS lead to CPU_PWR1.

• D. Connect the white HDD LED lead to pin 1 and red lead to pin 3.

• E. Connect the HDD LED leads to F_PANEL pins 5 and 7.

Correct answers: B and C

Explanation: Motherboard power cables must match the connector’s specified function, not merely its pin count. The CPU_PWR1 label specifies EPS12V, so it requires the CPU/EPS cable. A similarly sized PCI-E cable has a different purpose and pin arrangement.

Front-panel LEDs are polarized. The case’s positive LED lead must connect to HDD_LED+, and its negative lead must connect to HDD_LED-. By contrast, the pins labeled RESET_SW are assigned to the reset switch rather than the drive-activity LED. Always follow the motherboard labels or manual because front-panel pin arrangements vary among boards.

• PCI-E power lead: A 6+2-pin PCI-E cable is intended for expansion-card power, not an EPS12V CPU connector.
• Reversed LED leads: Connecting positive to HDD_LED- and negative to HDD_LED+ reverses the required polarity.
• Reset switch pins: Pins 5 and 7 are labeled for RESET_SW, not the drive-activity LED.

Question 53

Topic: Troubleshooting

A technician installs a secondary SATA hard drive that should appear in Windows Disk Management. The drive spins, but it is absent from both Disk Management and the UEFI storage list.

The technician powers down between tests and keeps the same SATA power connector and motherboard port connected.

Which cause is best supported by the evidence?

Options:

• A. The new hard drive electronics are defective.

• B. The original SATA data cable is defective.

• C. The shared SATA power lead is defective.

• D. The motherboard SATA controller port is disabled.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The controlled comparison isolates the SATA data cable. Both drives fail detection when using the original cable, but both are detected when using a known-good cable on the same power connector and controller port. Detection in UEFI also confirms that the problem occurs below the operating-system level, so Windows configuration is not the cause.

The new hard drive appearing in both UEFI and Windows with the replacement cable verifies that its electronics and the shared power connection function. The known-good SSD appearing through the same motherboard port verifies that the controller port is enabled and operational. The component whose condition consistently matches the failure is the original data cable.

• Power lead failure is inconsistent with the new hard drive working while the same power connector remains in use.
• Drive electronics failure is ruled out when the new drive is detected after only the data cable changes.
• Disabled controller port is ruled out when both drives are detected through that same port with the known-good cable.

Question 54

Topic: Networking

A desktop is set to obtain IPv4 settings automatically. It should access a SOHO file server and the internet, but it cannot ping either the server at 192.168.50.20 or the router at 192.168.50.1.

Network comparison:

Desktop: 169.254.23.41 /16, gateway blank
Laptop on same cable: 192.168.50.73 /24,
gateway 192.168.50.1, connectivity successful

Which interpretation best explains the desktop’s configuration and loss of access?

Options:

• A. The desktop retained a static address from another private subnet, leaving its configured gateway unreachable.

• B. The desktop obtained valid IPv4 settings but has a DNS failure, preventing only name-based access.

• C. The desktop received a DHCP lease without a default gateway, allowing only local-subnet IPv4 access.

• D. The desktop self-assigned APIPA after failing to obtain DHCP configuration, preventing routed IPv4 access.

Best answer: D

Explanation: An address in 169.254.0.0/16 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. A host configured for automatic addressing typically assigns itself one when it does not obtain normal IPv4 configuration from DHCP. APIPA can support communication with compatible APIPA hosts on the same local link, but it does not provide a default gateway for reaching the 192.168.50.0/24 network or the internet.

The known-good laptop shows that the cable and SOHO network can provide a normal DHCP lease. This narrows the problem to the desktop’s DHCP communication or configuration, although it does not identify the exact underlying desktop fault.

• A DHCP lease missing only a gateway would not explain the desktop’s recognizable 169.254.0.0/16 APIPA address.
• A retained static address conflicts with the adapter being configured to obtain its IPv4 settings automatically.
• A DNS failure would not explain unsuccessful pings to numeric IPv4 addresses or the absence of normal IPv4 configuration.

Question 55

Topic: Hardware

A technician is replacing memory in a desktop. The motherboard manual specifies 288-pin DDR5 UDIMMs, DDR5-4800, 1.1 V, non-ECC, and the slot has DDR5 keying. Which module is compatible?

Options:

• A. 16 GB DDR5-4800 non-ECC UDIMM, 1.1 V

• B. 16 GB DDR5-4800 non-ECC SODIMM, 1.1 V

• C. 16 GB DDR4-3200 non-ECC UDIMM, 1.2 V

• D. 16 GB DDR5-4800 ECC RDIMM, 1.1 V

Best answer: A

Explanation: Memory must match the generation and module types supported by the motherboard. DDR4 and DDR5 desktop modules both commonly have 288 pins, but their electrical specifications and key-notch positions differ, so a DDR4 module cannot be installed in a DDR5 slot. The motherboard also requires a full-size, unbuffered, non-ECC UDIMM rather than a laptop SODIMM or registered server module. The compatible module therefore must satisfy all listed platform specifications, not merely match the capacity or pin count.

• The DDR4 UDIMM has incompatible generation-specific keying, voltage, and signaling despite having 288 pins.
• The DDR5 SODIMM uses a smaller module form factor that does not fit a desktop UDIMM slot.
• The ECC RDIMM is registered server memory and does not match the required non-ECC UDIMM type.

Question 56

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop reports corrupted files on a secondary SATA SSD. Testing shows:

• SMART reports a failing media status and increasing uncorrectable sectors.
• Repeated reads of affected files produce I/O errors or different SHA-256 hashes.
• A known-good SSD works consistently on the original cable and port.
• The suspect SSD produces the same symptoms in another computer.
• A verified backup provides the expected file hashes.

Which conclusions are supported? Select TWO.

Options:

• A. The suspect SSD is failing independently of the original cable and port.

• B. Files that complete one read successfully can be considered uncorrupted.

• C. File-system metadata alone accounts for the SMART warning and read errors.

• D. Files with hashes unlike the verified backup have lost data integrity.

• E. The original SATA cable is causing the warnings and inconsistent reads.

Correct answers: A and D

Explanation: The controlled comparisons isolate a physical problem with the suspect SSD. A known-good SSD works on the original cable and port, while the suspect SSD continues to report media warnings and read errors in another computer. This rules against the original connection as the primary fault source.

File integrity must be evaluated separately from whether a read completes. Different hashes across repeated reads show unstable data, and a mismatch against a verified backup confirms that the retrieved contents are corrupted. One successful read does not establish integrity when the drive is producing intermittent errors.

• The SATA cable is not isolated because a known-good SSD operates correctly through that same connection.
• File-system metadata cannot by itself account for hardware media warnings that follow the SSD to another computer.
• A single completed read is insufficient because intermittent failures can return altered data without producing an I/O error.

Question 57

Topic: Mobile Devices

A company enrolls an employee-owned phone that supports a separate work profile and compliance reporting. The corporate app must be assigned by the company, become unavailable when the phone is noncompliant, and leave personal apps and data unmanaged.

Current settings: Device-wide; Managed catalog; Enrolled

Which revised configuration meets all requirements?

Options:

• A. Work profile; Public store; Compliant

• B. Work profile; Managed catalog; Compliant

• C. Device-wide; Managed catalog; Compliant

• D. Work profile; Managed catalog; Enrolled

Best answer: B

Explanation: A work profile separates corporate resources from the employee’s personal apps and data, allowing mobile device management policies to apply only to the corporate area. The managed catalog preserves company control over app assignment. Setting the access gate to Compliant makes reported policy compliance a condition for opening the corporate app, rather than treating enrollment alone as sufficient.

The key distinction is that enrollment establishes management, while compliance-based access continuously enforces the required policy state.

• Using Enrolled permits access after enrollment even when the device later becomes noncompliant.
• Using Device-wide subjects the personal side of the employee-owned phone to corporate management.
• Using Public store creates an unmanaged installation rather than a company-assigned managed app.

Question 58

Topic: Networking

A technician is documenting a home user’s wireless connections:

• A headset and smartwatch pair directly with a smartphone over Bluetooth.
• The smartphone and a laptop connect to a wireless router over Wi-Fi.

Which classification best reflects each connection’s purpose and participating devices?

Options:

• A. Classify the Bluetooth pairings as a WLAN and the Wi-Fi connections as a PAN.

• B. Classify the Bluetooth and Wi-Fi connections together as a single WLAN.

• C. Classify the Bluetooth and Wi-Fi connections together as a single PAN.

• D. Classify the Bluetooth pairings as a PAN and the Wi-Fi connections as a WLAN.

Best answer: D

Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) connects devices located close to an individual, commonly through Bluetooth. The headset, smartwatch, and smartphone therefore participate in PAN connections. A wireless local area network (WLAN) uses Wi-Fi to connect devices through a wireless access point or router across a larger local area, such as a home or office. The smartphone and laptop are WLAN clients when they connect to the wireless router.

A device can participate in both network types at the same time; the connection technology and purpose determine the classification.

• Reversing the classifications conflicts with Bluetooth’s personal-device role and Wi-Fi’s local network role.
• Combining every connection into one PAN ignores the devices connected through the Wi-Fi router.
• Combining every connection into one WLAN incorrectly treats direct Bluetooth pairings as WLAN links.

Question 59

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician is isolating a virtualized application for malware analysis. Both test VMs support an internal network named LabNet.

Requirements:

• The analysis VM must exchange traffic only with the second test VM.
• Host files, physical USB devices, the LAN, and the internet must remain inaccessible.

Internal (LabNet) connects only VMs using that network name. Disabled provides no guest networking.

Which focused correction meets all requirements while leaving the other settings unchanged?

Options:

• A. Set Shared Folder to None and Network to Internal (LabNet).

• B. Set Shared Folder to None and Network to NAT.

• C. Set Shared Folder to Read-only and Network to Internal (LabNet).

• D. Set Shared Folder to None and Network to Disabled.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Virtual machine isolation depends on every enabled integration path. A read-only shared folder prevents modification but still exposes host data to the guest, so sharing must be removed. NAT is also not an offline mode because it can carry guest traffic through the host to external networks. An internal network limits communication to VMs attached to the same named virtual network, meeting the requirement for communication between the test VMs without host, LAN, or internet access. Disabling networking would provide stronger network separation but would also prevent the required VM-to-VM traffic.

• Read-only sharing still lets the analysis VM view host files, violating the data-isolation requirement.
• NAT networking permits outbound traffic through the host rather than limiting traffic to the test VMs.
• Disabled networking blocks the required communication with the second test VM.

Question 60

Topic: Troubleshooting

A support specialist reviews a shared printer queue after multiple jobs fail to print.

Evidence:

• The printer reports Ready and prints its internal configuration page.
• A controlled one-page OS test fully spools but remains Pending - release required.
• Earlier user jobs show the same state.

Requirement: Eligible jobs must print automatically.

Which configuration change should the specialist make?

Options:

• A. Change Transport from IPP to RAW.

• B. Change Release gate from Manual to Automatic.

• C. Change Offline handling from Hold to Continue.

• D. Change Dispatch trigger from Complete to Streaming.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The job state identifies the queue’s release gate as the cause. The printer is ready and can print an internal page, while the controlled OS test fully spools and then waits for release. With the gate set to Manual, this behavior is expected. Setting it to Automatic allows eligible jobs to proceed without technician intervention.

The dispatch trigger applies after release, offline handling is inactive while the device reports Ready, and changing between supported transports does not remove a queue-level release requirement.

• Dispatch trigger: Streaming changes when a released job begins transmitting, not whether it requires release.
• Offline handling: Continue matters when the printer reports offline, but this printer reports Ready.
• Transport protocol: RAW is supported, but changing transport cannot clear the documented release-required state.

Question 61

Topic: Hardware

An authorized technician reviews a desktop’s UEFI configuration.

Requirement: The computer must restart unattended after a power outage, but users must not access UEFI setup without authorization.

Field semantics:

• System Password is requested before normal startup continues.
• Admin Password is requested before UEFI setup opens and does not affect normal startup.

Current configuration:

Which correction meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Keep the System Password and set the Admin Password.

• B. Clear the System Password and set the Admin Password.

• C. Keep the System Password and leave the Admin Password unset.

• D. Clear the System Password and leave the Admin Password unset.

Best answer: B

Explanation: A boot or power-on password controls whether startup can continue, while a BIOS or UEFI setup password controls access to firmware settings. Because this computer must restart unattended, the System Password must be cleared. Setting the Admin Password protects UEFI setup without introducing a prompt during normal startup.

Keeping the boot password would prevent unattended restarts, while leaving the setup password unset would fail to protect firmware access.

• Set both passwords protects setup but still interrupts unattended startup with the System Password prompt.
• Clear both passwords permits unattended startup but leaves UEFI setup accessible without authorization.
• Keep the current settings continues both mismatches: startup requires authentication and setup remains unprotected.

Question 62

Topic: Networking

A temporary telehealth office will operate for two months in a leased building. Video consultations require low delay. Testing shows stable 5G service indoors. A local WISP confirms coverage but requires an exterior directional receiver. Satellite services require an outdoor terminal with an unobstructed view of the sky. The owner prohibits equipment mounted or placed outside.

Which internet connection best meets the requirements?

Options:

• A. Use an indoor 5G cellular gateway.

• B. Use a rooftop geostationary satellite dish.

• C. Use an outdoor LEO satellite terminal.

• D. Use a rooftop fixed-WISP directional receiver.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Cellular service is the best fit because the site has stable indoor 5G coverage and needs low delay for video consultations. It also avoids the installation restrictions affecting the other available connections. Fixed WISP commonly requires a directional receiver with line of sight to the provider’s tower. Satellite service requires an outdoor terminal with a clear sky view; geostationary satellite also typically introduces substantially more delay than terrestrial wireless connections. Although LEO satellite generally has less delay than geostationary satellite, it still requires prohibited outdoor equipment. Coverage alone is insufficient when the required installation cannot be performed.

• Fixed WISP has confirmed coverage, but its required exterior receiver violates the owner’s installation restriction.
• LEO satellite can reduce satellite delay, but its terminal still needs prohibited outdoor placement and clear sky visibility.
• Geostationary satellite requires prohibited exterior equipment and adds delay that is poorly suited to interactive video.

Question 63

Topic: Troubleshooting

Users on a VoIP call hear clear syllables but experience long pauses and repeatedly talk over one another.

• One-way voice-packet transit time remains between 320 and 330 ms.
• Packets sent every 20 ms arrive 19–21 ms apart.
• Packet loss is 0%, and interface error counters do not increase.
• Before the route changed, one-way transit time was 45–55 ms.

Which condition best explains the current call behavior?

Options:

• A. Physical interface corruption of voice frames.

• B. Excessive sustained latency on the voice path.

• C. Excessive jitter in packet arrival intervals.

• D. Repeated loss of voice packets.

Best answer: B

Explanation: The voice packets take much longer to reach their destination after the route change, but their spacing remains regular. Consistently high transit delay causes conversational lag and talk-over, so sustained latency is the supported diagnosis.

Jitter concerns changing delay, which would appear as less regular arrival timing. Loss and interface corruption are not supported by the supplied counters. These measurements establish the condition, not the exact equipment or route responsible for it.

• Arrival spacing remains close to the 20 ms sending interval.
• The capture reports no packet loss.
• Interface error counters remain unchanged.

Question 64

Topic: Hardware

A print server tags each job with the submitter’s directory account ID. The printer’s badge reader resolves badges to those same IDs.

When an employee taps their badge, every held job they submitted must print. Other employees’ jobs must remain held.

Current profile: Mode=Held; Presence=Badge; Authorization=Any authenticated; Scope=All authorized jobs

Which corrected profile meets the requirement?

Options:

• A. Mode=Held; Presence=Badge; Authorization=Any authenticated; Scope=Selected job

• B. Mode=Held; Presence=Badge; Authorization=Submitter match; Scope=All authorized jobs

• C. Mode=Held; Presence=Badge; Authorization=Submitter match; Scope=Selected job

• D. Mode=Held; Presence=Badge; Authorization=Group match; Scope=All authorized jobs

Best answer: B

Explanation: Secure print release requires both presence authentication and job-owner authorization. The badge tap confirms that a user is physically at the printer and supplies the user’s directory identity. Submitter match then compares that identity with each job’s owner tag. Because Scope=All authorized jobs applies only after authorization, all jobs belonging to that user print while other users’ jobs remain held.

Selecting one job changes the number of jobs released but does not establish ownership. Likewise, matching only the department permits coworkers to release one another’s jobs. The decisive relationship is between the authenticated badge identity and the submitter ID stored with each job.

• Department matching allows another authenticated employee in the same department to release the submitter’s jobs.
• Selected-job scope limits the quantity released, but any authenticated user could still select another employee’s job.
• Single owner job validates ownership but fails the requirement to release every held job submitted by that user.

Question 65

Topic: Mobile Devices

A laptop should maintain a stable Wi-Fi connection as its display moves. After a display-panel replacement, the built-in adapter drops from -50 dBm at 45 degrees to -82 dBm at 110 degrees.

Evidence:

• A USB Wi-Fi adapter remains near -49 dBm at both angles.
• MAIN and AUX connectors are secure, and both radiators remain in their specified upper-bezel positions.
• The service guide routes AUX through a recessed hinge channel with a service loop.
• AUX instead crosses the hinge pivot, has a sharp crease, and fails the manufacturer’s flex continuity test at that crease.

Which repair should the technician perform?

Options:

• A. Replace the MAIN antenna lead and route it through its hinge channel with a service loop.

• B. Reroute the existing AUX antenna lead through its hinge channel with a service loop.

• C. Replace the AUX antenna lead and route it through its hinge channel with a service loop.

• D. Replace the WLAN card and reconnect both existing leads to their labeled antenna terminals.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The intermittent continuity failure identifies physical damage to the AUX antenna lead. Its path across the hinge pivot explains why signal strength changes with display angle: hinge movement flexes the creased coaxial cable and disrupts the antenna connection. The stable USB adapter result makes the access point and local radio environment unlikely causes, while the secure internal connectors reduce the likelihood of a simple seating problem.

The damaged AUX lead should be replaced, with the new lead placed in the recessed channel and given the specified service loop. Correct routing prevents pinching and excessive flex during display movement. Merely rerouting the creased lead would leave the measured electrical fault in service.

• Replacing the MAIN lead ignores the flex-test failure specifically measured on the AUX lead.
• Reusing the AUX lead corrects its route but retains the crease that causes intermittent continuity.
• Replacing the WLAN card does not address the measured cable fault associated with hinge movement.

Question 66

Topic: Networking

A support technician must remotely control a Windows workstation’s full graphical desktop and installed applications. The firewall administrator will allow the service’s common TCP port.

Which remote-access service and port should the technician request?

Options:

• A. RDP over TCP port 3389

• B. Telnet over TCP port 23

• C. SSH over TCP port 22

• D. RDP over TCP port 22

Best answer: A

Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is designed for remotely interacting with a graphical desktop and commonly uses TCP port 3389. SSH commonly uses TCP port 22 for encrypted command-line access and remote administration. Telnet commonly uses TCP port 23 for unencrypted terminal access, primarily in legacy or controlled environments.

The required interface and the port must both match. Full graphical control of the Windows workstation points to RDP and its common port, 3389, rather than either command-line protocol.

• SSH on port 22 provides encrypted command-line access, not the requested graphical desktop session.
• Telnet on port 23 provides an unencrypted terminal session, not full desktop control.
• RDP on port 22 identifies the appropriate service but assigns SSH’s common port.

Question 67

Topic: Troubleshooting

Several users near a staff kitchen experience brief Wi-Fi disconnections around lunchtime. A technician gathers this evidence:

• Affected clients have RSSI between -47 and -52 dBm.
• Their AP uses 20 MHz channel 6 with 9% Wi-Fi airtime utilization.
• Nearby APs use channels 1 and 11.
• The 2.4 GHz noise floor rises sharply whenever the microwave operates.
• The same clients remain stable on 5 GHz.

Which diagnosis is best supported?

Options:

• A. Insufficient AP signal coverage in the affected area

• B. Co-channel congestion from nearby Wi-Fi access points

• C. Intermittent failure of the clients’ wireless adapters

• D. Broadband 2.4 GHz interference from the operating microwave

Best answer: D

Explanation: External radio-frequency interference can disrupt Wi-Fi even when the received signal is strong. Here, acceptable RSSI rules against a basic coverage problem, while low Wi-Fi airtime utilization and neighboring APs on different non-overlapping channels make congestion unlikely. The decisive evidence is that the 2.4 GHz noise floor rises when the microwave operates and the same clients remain stable on 5 GHz. Microwave energy can reduce the signal-to-noise ratio, causing retries and temporary disconnections on 2.4 GHz.

Channel changes mainly address Wi-Fi channel conflicts; moving compatible clients to 5 GHz avoids this source of interference.

• Insufficient coverage conflicts with the strong RSSI readings in the affected area.
• Co-channel congestion is unsupported because channel 6 has low utilization and nearby APs use other channels.
• Adapter failure does not explain multiple clients failing together only during microwave operation while remaining stable on 5 GHz.

Question 68

Topic: Hardware

A technician must assign displays to two workstations:

• Close-detail station: Requires the highest horizontal pixel density for fine text.
• Dashboard station: Requires the greatest native pixel workspace for multiple panels.

Horizontal pixel density equals horizontal pixels divided by viewable width. Select TWO assignments.

Options:

• A. Assign Display B to the close-detail station.

• B. Assign Display A to the close-detail station.

• C. Assign Display B to the dashboard station.

• D. Assign Display C to the close-detail station.

• E. Assign Display C to the dashboard station.

Correct answers: B and C

Explanation: Horizontal pixel density accounts for both horizontal pixel count and physical width. Display A provides approximately 141 pixels per inch, compared with 138 for Display B and 122 for Display C, so Display A best meets the close-viewing requirement.

Native pixel workspace is determined by resolution rather than physical density. Display B has the largest native dimensions at 3840 x 2160, allowing it to display more content than either lower-resolution display. A higher resolution does not necessarily produce the highest density when those pixels are spread across a wider screen.

• Display B has more pixels than Display A, but its greater width produces slightly lower horizontal density.
• Display C’s 2560-pixel width does not offset its physical width, giving it the lowest horizontal density.
• Display C provides less native workspace than the 3840 x 2160 display.

Question 69

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician creates a virtual machine for testing software. The guest must download updates from the internet, but it must not receive an address on the physical LAN or accept unsolicited inbound LAN connections. No port forwarding is required.

Which virtual network mode should the technician select?

Options:

• A. Configure the adapter for internal networking

• B. Configure the adapter for NAT networking

• C. Configure the adapter for bridged networking

• D. Configure the adapter for host-only networking

Best answer: B

Explanation: NAT networking places the guest on a private virtual network and translates its outbound traffic through the host’s connection. This allows the guest to download updates without appearing as a separate device on the physical LAN. With no port forwarding configured, systems on that LAN cannot normally initiate connections to the guest.

Bridged networking would provide direct LAN participation. Host-only and internal networking provide stronger separation but do not normally supply the required internet access. The deciding requirement is outbound internet access combined with isolation from direct physical-LAN access.

• Bridged networking gives the guest direct physical-LAN access and typically assigns it a LAN address.
• Host-only networking permits communication on a private host-guest network but does not normally provide internet access.
• Internal networking limits communication to guests on the same private virtual network and does not normally provide internet access.

Question 70

Topic: Troubleshooting

A rugged tablet is dropped. Its front cover glass has spiderweb cracks, but the displayed image remains bright and uniform with no lines or dark areas. A touch diagnostic registers input across the entire screen. The manufacturer supports separate replacement of each display layer.

Which component should the technician replace?

Options:

• A. Replace the LCD panel

• B. Replace the touch digitizer

• C. Replace the complete display assembly

• D. Replace the front cover glass

Best answer: D

Explanation: A mobile display can contain separate cover glass, touch digitizer, and image panel layers. Spiderweb cracking identifies physical damage to the outer glass. The uniform image indicates that the LCD remains functional, while successful input across the screen indicates that the digitizer is still detecting touch correctly. Because the manufacturer supports replacing each layer separately, the focused repair is to replace the damaged cover glass.

A complete assembly would be appropriate when the layers are bonded or multiple layers have failed, but neither condition applies here.

• Replacing the digitizer addresses failed or inaccurate touch detection, which the diagnostic did not find.
• Replacing the LCD addresses image defects such as lines, dark areas, or missing output, none of which are present.
• Replacing the complete assembly is unnecessary because the layers are separately serviceable and only the glass is damaged.

Question 71

Topic: Networking

A desktop has no Ethernet link. The manufacturer supports an external loopback test for this NIC model using its bootable diagnostic and specified loopback plug. The diagnostic runs independently of the installed operating system.

The technician disconnects all network cables and inserts the loopback plug directly into each tested NIC.

Which conclusion is best supported?

Options:

• A. Discard the loopback plug; failure on one NIC proves the plug cannot carry test signals.

• B. Replace the wall cable; the loopback failure identifies the cable segment beyond the NIC.

• C. Replace the office switch port; a local loopback test exchanges frames through that port.

• D. Investigate the suspect NIC local transmit/receive path; the office cable and switch are outside these tests.

Best answer: D

Explanation: A plug inserted directly into the NIC returns its transmitted test signal to the local receive path. The office switch and cabling are disconnected, so neither can cause this local test result. The same approved setup passes on an identical interface and repeatedly fails on the suspect interface. That supports investigating the suspect NIC’s local path rather than replacing an untested external component.

The result does not identify a particular failed circuit. Follow the manufacturer’s remaining interface checks before choosing the repair.

• The switch does not participate in the directly attached loopback test.
• The wall cable is disconnected and has not been assessed by these results.
• The plug works on the identical known-good NIC, so the evidence does not isolate it as defective.

Question 72

Topic: Hardware

A direct thermal receipt printer has faint bands after processing adhesive-backed media. The printer is unplugged and cool. Inspection finds residue on the heating element and loose paper dust around the feed assembly. The manufacturer approves isopropyl alcohol on a lint-free swab for the element and canned electronics-safe air for loose interior debris.

Which maintenance procedure should the technician use?

Options:

• A. Wipe the element with isopropyl alcohol; blow debris from the feed assembly.

• B. Run a laser cleaning sheet; blow debris from the feed assembly.

• C. Wipe the element with distilled water; blow debris from the feed assembly.

• D. Blow the element with compressed air; wipe the feed assembly with alcohol.

Best answer: A

Explanation: A thermal printer forms an image by applying heat at precise points on its printhead. For this model, gently cleaning the element with a fresh lint-free swab lightly dampened with the manufacturer-approved isopropyl alcohol removes adhered residue. The approved canned air clears loose paper dust from the surrounding feed assembly. Keep the printer unplugged and cool, avoid hard or abrasive tools, and allow the cleaned surfaces to dry fully before use.

Cleaning methods are component- and model-specific. A method approved for the printhead must not automatically be applied to every roller, sensor, or other interior surface.

• Compressed air can remove loose dust but does not reliably remove adhered residue from the heating element.
• Distilled water is not the specified solvent for this element-cleaning procedure.
• A laser-printer cleaning sheet is not the approved method for the stated direct-thermal printhead.

Question 73

Topic: Mobile Devices

A technician is replacing a failed laptop wireless card. The service data specifies:

• Slot: M.2 2230 Key E
• Supported signaling: PCIe/USB; CNVio2 is not supported
• Card P: M.2 2230 Key E, PCIe/USB
• Card Q: M.2 2230 Key E, CNVio2 only
• Antenna lead 1 connects to MAIN; lead 2 connects to AUX

Which replacement action is supported?

Options:

• A. Install Card P; connect lead 1 to MAIN and lead 2 to AUX.

• B. Install Card Q; connect lead 2 to MAIN and lead 1 to AUX.

• C. Install Card P; connect lead 2 to MAIN and lead 1 to AUX.

• D. Install Card Q; connect lead 1 to MAIN and lead 2 to AUX.

Best answer: A

Explanation: An M.2 wireless card must match both the physical slot and the electrical interface. Although both candidates have the M.2 2230 Key E form factor, only Card P uses the laptop’s supported PCIe/USB signaling. Card Q requires CNVio2, which the laptop does not support. After installing the compatible card, the antenna leads must follow the service mapping: lead 1 to MAIN and lead 2 to AUX. Physical fit alone does not establish compatibility, and antenna placement should follow the documented connector assignments.

• Swapping the leads conflicts with the specified MAIN and AUX connector mapping.
• Card Q fits mechanically, but its CNVio2-only interface is unsupported by the laptop.
• Using Card Q with swapped leads fails both the signaling and antenna-mapping requirements.

Question 74

Topic: Troubleshooting

An employee cannot join the office Wi-Fi. The same username and password work on another company laptop. The affected laptop supports all listed methods but has no client certificate.

Field semantics: EAP-TLS authenticates with a client certificate. PEAP uses the listed inner method for user credentials.

The authentication service reports EAP type rejected: TLS; PEAP required and does not validate the password. Which focused correction should the technician make?

Options:

• A. Configure WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP/PAP and the existing user credentials.

• B. Configure WPA2-Enterprise with EAP-TLS and a newly issued client certificate.

• C. Configure WPA2-Personal with the employee password as the shared passphrase.

• D. Configure WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP/MSCHAPv2 and the existing user credentials.

Best answer: D

Explanation: Enterprise Wi-Fi authentication requires the client and authentication service to use compatible EAP methods. The laptop is attempting EAP-TLS, which requires a client certificate, while the service accepts PEAP with MSCHAPv2. Because the username and password work from another laptop, the evidence points to an authentication-method mismatch rather than invalid credentials. Selecting PEAP and its required MSCHAPv2 inner method allows those credentials to be submitted through the expected protected tunnel.

Installing a client certificate would not help while the service continues to reject EAP-TLS.

• EAP-TLS certificate remains incompatible because the authentication service explicitly requires PEAP.
• PEAP with PAP uses an inner authentication method that does not match the stated MSCHAPv2 requirement.
• WPA2-Personal replaces individual service authentication with a shared passphrase and does not meet the enterprise requirement.

Question 75

Topic: Networking

A wireless controller uses BandOnly, meaning clients can associate only on the selected band, with no fallback. The access points support all three bands.

Which single configuration change corrects the mismatch without disrupting the compliant profiles?

Options:

• A. Set Stockroom BandOnly to 5 GHz.

• B. Set Open office BandOnly to 6 GHz.

• C. Set Conference BandOnly to 5 GHz.

• D. Set Conference BandOnly to 2.4 GHz.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Band selection must account for client support, interference, and coverage. The conference tablets cannot connect to a 6 GHz-only profile because their radios support only 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Selecting 5 GHz preserves compatibility while avoiding the congested 2.4 GHz band. The stockroom appropriately uses 2.4 GHz for better wall penetration, while the open office uses 5 GHz because its 6 GHz coverage survey failed.

A higher-frequency band is useful only when both the client equipment and required coverage support it.

• Using 2.4 GHz for Conference supports the tablets but conflicts with the requirement to avoid that congested band.
• Using 6 GHz for Open office conflicts with the supplied coverage survey, despite laptop support.
• Using 5 GHz for Stockroom prevents its 2.4 GHz-only clients from associating.

Questions 76-90

Question 76

Topic: Hardware

A company configures a shared multifunction device to display each user’s held print jobs after the user taps an assigned badge. Migrated users now receive Unknown credential when tapping their badges.

Diagnostic evidence:

• The affected users can sign in with usernames and PINs and view their held jobs.
• The badge reader consistently detects each badge identifier.
• The badge-to-account mapping table has no entries for migrated users.
• A user whose mapping was recreated can authenticate with the same reader.

Which action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Reconfigure the directory server address and its bind credentials

• B. Redeploy the print driver and recreate the users’ print queues

• C. Replace the badge reader and select its supported card protocol

• D. Re-enroll the migrated users’ badge identifiers to their accounts

Best answer: D

Explanation: Badge authentication requires the multifunction device or its authentication service to associate each badge identifier with a user account. The reader is detecting identifiers correctly, and username/PIN authentication confirms that the accounts, held jobs, and authentication service remain accessible. The successful test after one user’s mapping was recreated further isolates the problem to missing badge enrollment data following the migration.

Re-enrolling the affected badges restores the required association while preserving the existing authentication and secure print configuration. Replacing hardware or changing directory and print settings would not address the missing mappings.

• Replace the reader is unsupported because it reads badges consistently and authenticates a user with a recreated mapping.
• Reconfigure the directory is unnecessary because affected users can authenticate with their usernames and PINs.
• Redeploy printing does not address badge authentication because held jobs are already visible after PIN sign-in.

Question 77

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A customer-facing cloud application has web and database tiers. It must remain accessible without administrator action if either of two availability zones becomes unavailable. Recovery from a whole-region outage is not required.

Which design best satisfies this availability requirement?

Options:

• A. Deploy web instances in one zone behind a health-checking load balancer and use cross-zone database failover.

• B. Deploy both tiers in one zone and restore them from cross-zone snapshots after a zone failure.

• C. Deploy web instances across two zones behind a health-checking load balancer and use cross-zone database failover.

• D. Deploy web instances across two zones behind a health-checking load balancer and use a single-zone database.

Best answer: C

Explanation: Cloud availability means users can continue accessing a service during the specified failure conditions. Surviving a zone outage requires every critical application tier to remain operational elsewhere. Web instances distributed across zones can receive traffic through health-based routing, while cross-zone database failover keeps the data tier available without manual action. This design addresses a single-zone failure but does not establish availability during a whole-region outage.

Snapshots support recovery after an interruption, whereas redundant active resources and automatic failover support continued access.

• Keeping web instances in one zone leaves the application tier unavailable if that zone fails.
• Keeping the database in one zone makes it a single point of failure despite redundant web instances.
• Restoring from snapshots requires recovery time, so it does not provide uninterrupted service during the outage.

Question 78

Topic: Troubleshooting

A desktop that previously booted from its SATA SSD now reports “Bootable device not found.” A technician gathers this evidence:

• The firmware detects the system SSD and data HDD.
• The SSD passes the built-in diagnostic, and its power and data connections are secure.
• SATA mode remains AHCI.
• Boot mode is UEFI, but Windows Boot Manager on the SSD is disabled in the boot order.

Which action should the technician take?

Options:

• A. Enable Windows Boot Manager and place it first in the UEFI order.

• B. Replace the system SSD’s SATA cable and retain the boot order.

• C. Enable legacy boot and place the system SSD first.

• D. Switch the SATA controller from AHCI to RAID and reboot.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Firmware detection confirms that the motherboard can communicate with the SSD, while the successful diagnostic and secure connections provide no evidence of a drive or cable failure. In UEFI mode, the system starts the installed operating system through its Windows Boot Manager entry. Because that entry is disabled, the firmware does not attempt the correct boot path even though the SSD is available. Enabling the entry and placing it first addresses the supported cause without altering the storage controller or firmware boot mode.

Changing to legacy boot would not use the existing UEFI boot entry.

• Changing to RAID alters the controller mode even though AHCI has not changed and the SSD is already detected.
• Replacing the cable does not address the disabled boot entry, and the current connection is working.
• Enabling legacy boot conflicts with the existing UEFI Windows Boot Manager configuration.

Question 79

Topic: Mobile Devices

A user adds personal and work accounts to a new tablet. All synchronization switches are initially off. The tablet provides per-account synchronization settings, while the cloud storage and business app require separate in-app sign-ins.

The user wants:

• Work mail, calendars, contacts, cloud files, and business app data synchronized
• Personal mail synchronized, but no other personal data synchronized

Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

• A. Enable work mail, calendar, and contacts; enable personal mail; sign both apps into work and enable their synchronization.

• B. Enable work mail, calendar, and contacts; enable personal mail; sign cloud storage into work, business app into personal, and enable synchronization.

• C. Enable work mail, calendar, and contacts; disable personal synchronization; sign both apps into work and enable their synchronization.

• D. Enable work mail, calendar, and contacts; enable personal mail; sign cloud storage into personal, business app into work, and enable synchronization.

Best answer: A

Explanation: Synchronization must be configured for the correct data categories and accounts. The tablet’s account settings control work mail, calendars, contacts, and personal mail independently. Cloud storage and business application data are not covered by those category switches because each app requires its own sign-in and synchronization setting. Both apps must therefore use the work account, while only mail synchronization remains enabled for the personal account.

Disabling all personal synchronization would also disable required personal mail. Signing either app into the personal account would synchronize data from the wrong account.

• Disabling personal synchronization conflicts with the requirement to synchronize personal mail.
• Using the personal account for cloud storage synchronizes the wrong files despite correct work business-app settings.
• Using the personal account for the business app synchronizes the wrong application data despite correct cloud settings.

Question 80

Topic: Networking

A technician reviews a Wi-Fi host on a SOHO lab network. The assigned LAN prefix is 2001:db8:44:10::/64, and the Wi-Fi adapter is interface 12.

IPv6 address:   2001:db8:44:10::25
Prefix length:  64
Default gateway: fe80::1%12

Which interpretation of these settings is supported?

Options:

• A. The settings require replacing the gateway with an address from the assigned LAN prefix.

• B. The settings require replacing the host address with a link-local address matching the gateway.

• C. The settings can be valid because %12 scopes the link-local gateway to the Wi-Fi interface.

• D. The settings require removing %12 because the /64 prefix already identifies the Wi-Fi interface.

Best answer: C

Explanation: IPv6 hosts commonly use a link-local router address as their default gateway. The host can have a unicast address from the assigned LAN prefix while its next hop uses an address beginning with fe80::. Because a link-local address has meaning only on its local link, %12 identifies the interface through which fe80::1 is reachable. The /64 value instead specifies the network prefix length for the host address; it does not identify an adapter. Therefore, the different address scopes do not indicate a configuration mismatch.

• Requiring an assigned-prefix gateway overlooks that IPv6 default routers are commonly reached through link-local addresses.
• Changing the host to link-local confuses the host’s usable unicast address with the router’s next-hop address.
• Removing %12 confuses a zone index with a prefix length; they identify the interface and network portion, respectively.

Question 81

Topic: Hardware

A technician is upgrading an engineering workstation that requires system-level correction of single-bit memory errors, including errors affecting data transferred between the module and memory controller.

• The CPU and motherboard support DDR5 ECC UDIMMs and non-ECC UDIMMs.
• DDR5 RDIMMs and DDR4 modules are unsupported.
• The memory vendor advertises on-die ECC for its DDR5 products.

Which memory should the technician install?

Options:

• A. DDR5 ECC UDIMMs of a supported capacity and speed

• B. DDR4 ECC UDIMMs of a supported capacity and speed

• C. DDR5 ECC RDIMMs of a supported capacity and speed

• D. DDR5 non-ECC UDIMMs of a supported capacity and speed

Best answer: A

Explanation: System-level ECC requires both ECC-capable memory modules and support from the processor and motherboard. DDR5 on-die ECC operates internally within each DRAM chip and improves chip-level reliability, but it does not protect data traveling between the memory module and controller. The workstation therefore needs compatible DDR5 ECC UDIMMs to meet the stated correction requirement. Having ECC capability is insufficient if the module’s generation or registered versus unbuffered design is unsupported by the platform.

The key distinction is between DDR5’s internal on-die protection and full system-level ECC.

• Non-ECC DDR5 relies on on-die ECC, which does not provide the required module-to-controller protection.
• ECC RDIMMs provide ECC capability but are incompatible with the workstation’s unbuffered memory platform.
• DDR4 ECC memory has error-correction capability but is incompatible with DDR5 slots and controllers.

Question 82

Topic: Troubleshooting

Two identical tablets run the same mapping app and complete 12 GB offline package. One tablet pauses during searches and repeatedly rebuilds its index; the known-good tablet does not.

Support details: Index reserve means the app needs at least 8 GB of free internal storage for temporary index writes. The package must remain on internal storage. Each tablet has 6 GB RAM, a supported GPU, and a microSD card that can store user media.

Which target configuration should the technician apply?

Options:

• A. Free storage 3 GB; complete package internal; other-app RAM <=0.5 GB

• B. Free storage >=8 GB; reduced package internal; user media internal

• C. Free storage >=8 GB; complete package on microSD; user media internal

• D. Free storage >=8 GB; complete package internal; user media on microSD

Best answer: D

Explanation: The degraded tablet lacks the app’s required internal working space. Its 3 GB of free internal storage is below the 8 GB index reserve, while the known-good tablet has 19 GB free. RAM demand and GPU settings are nearly identical between the devices, so those resources do not explain the performance difference. Moving user media to microSD can restore the required free internal space without changing the complete offline package.

Moving or reducing the package conflicts with its storage capability or the stated requirement, while limiting background RAM does not correct the observed storage mismatch.

• External package fails because the app can use its offline package only from internal storage.
• Reduced package violates the requirement to retain all offline map data.
• Background restriction changes RAM use even though the known-good comparison identifies free internal storage as the meaningful difference.

Question 83

Topic: Networking

A small office places a hardware firewall between its employee and guest network segments. Employees may access an internal file server, while guests may access the internet but not the employee segment.

Which hardware firewall function directly enforces this requirement?

Options:

• A. Translate private addresses to a public address for internet access

• B. Assign IP configuration to clients on each network segment

• C. Filter intersegment traffic using source, destination, and service rules

• D. Forward local Ethernet frames using learned MAC addresses

Best answer: C

Explanation: A hardware firewall filters traffic crossing between network segments according to configured rules. Rules can evaluate information such as the source segment, destination, protocol, and service port. Here, the firewall permits employee traffic to the file server while denying guest traffic destined for the employee segment. Internet access can still be allowed through separate rules.

Address translation supports internet connectivity, but it does not by itself define which segments may communicate. The decisive capability is policy-based filtering at the boundary between the networks.

• Address translation changes addressing information but does not independently enforce the required access policy between segments.
• IP assignment provides client network settings rather than controlling traffic that crosses a segment boundary.
• MAC-based forwarding moves frames within a local network and does not apply the required firewall policy.

Question 84

Topic: Hardware

An office MFP should record the employee identity for every print, copy, and scan job. After a configuration reset, audit reports show copy jobs attributed to Guest, while network print jobs still show employee names.

Evidence:

Which focused configuration change should the technician make?

Options:

• A. Increase audit-log detail for all completed job records.

• B. Require authenticated control-panel sessions for copy and scan jobs.

• C. Require driver-supplied user IDs for all network print jobs.

• D. Enable secure-release confirmation for all queued print jobs.

Best answer: B

Explanation: An audit record identifies the account associated with a job, not necessarily the person physically using the device. Network print jobs already receive directory usernames, and an authenticated copy test also records the correct employee. These results show that audit logging and identity recording are functioning.

Walk-up jobs appear as Guest because the control panel permits unauthenticated use. Requiring users to sign in before copying or scanning gives those jobs an authenticated identity that the audit log can record. Changing network-print or log-detail settings would not correct guest attribution for control-panel activity.

• Driver-supplied IDs affect network submissions, which are already recording directory usernames correctly.
• Secure release controls queued print-job release, not identity attribution for walk-up copy and scan activity.
• Additional log detail cannot replace an identity that was absent because the user operated as Guest.

Question 85

Topic: Troubleshooting

A network printer stopped accepting jobs after the office router was replaced. Its local configuration page prints correctly and reports:

• Ethernet link: Up
• IPv4 address: 192.168.20.44
• Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0

A workstation at 192.168.20.80 with mask 255.255.255.0 can ping the printer, but its printer queue uses Standard TCP/IP port 192.168.10.44. Which issue is best supported?

Options:

• A. The printer’s Ethernet interface has lost its physical network link.

• B. The workstation and printer are configured for different IPv4 subnets.

• C. The client is using an incompatible printer driver for rendering.

• D. The client queue is targeting the printer’s previous IP address.

Best answer: D

Explanation: The evidence isolates a client connection-target problem. A successful local configuration page confirms that the printer can produce output. The reported Ethernet link and successful ping confirm that the printer’s interface is active and reachable from the workstation. However, the client’s Standard TCP/IP port still targets an address on the previous subnet. Updating the queue to use the printer’s current address restores the required client-to-device path.

A driver problem could affect document rendering, but it does not explain the clearly mismatched queue destination.

• Lost physical link is inconsistent with the active link status and successful ping response.
• Different IPv4 subnets is inconsistent with both devices using 192.168.20.x addresses and the same mask.
• Incompatible driver remains possible in other cases, but the connection evidence directly identifies a stale queue address.

Question 86

Topic: Virtualization and Cloud

A technician reviews storage settings for two new virtual machines. The host has 400 GB of physical storage available for their virtual disks. Ignore snapshots and metadata.

Requirements:

• Each guest must see a 300 GB disk.
• Each disk will contain 120 GB initially and at most 180 GB before migration.

Field meanings:

• Capacity is the provisioned size visible to the guest.
• Dynamic allocates host space as data is written, up to Capacity.
• Fixed allocates the full Capacity immediately.

Which revised configuration meets both requirements?

Options:

• A. Disk A: 300 GB dynamic; Disk B: 300 GB dynamic

• B. Disk A: 180 GB fixed; Disk B: 180 GB fixed

• C. Disk A: 300 GB fixed; Disk B: 300 GB fixed

• D. Disk A: 300 GB dynamic; Disk B: 300 GB fixed

Best answer: A

Explanation: Dynamic allocation separates the provisioned virtual capacity from the physical host space currently allocated. Two 300 GB dynamic disks provide the required capacity to both guests, but initially consume only 240 GB after their data is loaded. Under the stated growth limit, their combined allocation reaches at most 360 GB, which fits within the host’s 400 GB.

Fixed allocation reserves the entire configured capacity immediately. The key distinction is therefore the 600 GB provisioned capacity versus the smaller amount of host space actually allocated to written data.

• Both disks fixed immediately requires 600 GB of host storage, exceeding the available 400 GB.
• Reduced fixed capacity consumes only 360 GB but presents 180 GB disks instead of the required 300 GB.
• Mixed allocation requires 420 GB after deployment: 120 GB for the dynamic disk and 300 GB for the fixed disk.

Question 87

Topic: Mobile Devices

A T14 tablet is intended to run for about 8 hours. It now runs for 50 minutes and powers off near 25%. It operates continuously when connected to a known-good manufacturer charger.

Battery evidence:

• Full-charge capacity: 16 Wh
• Design capacity: 42 Wh
• Reported health: 38%
• Physical inspection: no swelling, leakage, or connector damage

All candidate packs physically fit the battery bay.

Which focused recovery should the technician perform?

Options:

• A. Install BAT-T14-50, then verify charging and runtime.

• B. Install BAT-U56, then verify charging and runtime.

• C. Install BAT-T14S-42, then verify charging and runtime.

• D. Recalibrate the current pack, then verify charging and runtime.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The low full-charge capacity, poor battery health, short runtime, and normal operation on a known-good charger indicate a worn battery rather than a charger fault. The absence of swelling or leakage does not mean the battery still has adequate capacity.

Replacement compatibility depends on the manufacturer’s listing for the exact device, not capacity or physical fit alone. BAT-T14-50 is specifically listed as the approved successor for the T14. Its higher capacity does not disqualify it because the manufacturer confirms compatibility. Recalibration may improve charge-percentage reporting, but it cannot restore substantial chemical capacity loss.

• BAT-U56: Matching voltage and physical fit do not establish compatibility because the manufacturer limits this pack to U14 models.
• BAT-T14S-42: Matching the original capacity is insufficient because this pack is listed only for the T14S.
• Recalibration: It may correct inaccurate charge reporting but cannot recover the measured loss of usable capacity.

Question 88

Topic: Networking

Wi-Fi clients in a stockroom experience dropouts while accessing a local test server. Wired clients work normally. A technician repeats measurements using the same laptop and application, with the AP on channel 6 at 20 MHz.

Other permitted channels show similarly low utilization. The application’s deployment guide calls for at least -67 dBm at work locations. Which conclusion and focused test best fit the evidence?

Options:

• A. Coverage is below the required level; test a closer AP location and repeat the desk measurements.

• B. An elevated noise floor is the main limitation; locate a noise source beside the AP.

• C. The WAN link is the main limitation; test a faster Internet service for the stockroom.

• D. Co-channel congestion is the main limitation; select another channel using the current AP location.

Best answer: A

Explanation: The desk receives a much weaker AP signal and falls below the application’s stated coverage requirement. Low utilization and a consistent noise floor do not support channel congestion or increased ambient noise as the main finding. Successful near-AP and wired tests also narrow the problem.

Testing a closer AP location directly checks whether improved received signal reduces loss. The measurements justify a coverage-focused test; they do not identify one particular wall, antenna, or hardware defect.

• Another similarly quiet channel does not address the measured signal shortfall.
• The noise floor is unchanged between the two locations.
• The failing test uses a local server, so Internet service capacity does not explain it.

Question 89

Topic: Hardware

A technician must print a two-sided training handout in landscape orientation. The sheets will be bound along their left short edge. Heavy stock is loaded only in tray 2, and small labels require the printer’s highest quality.

The printer supports automatic duplex and HIGH quality with this stock. Field meanings are:

• LAND = landscape; PORT = portrait
• SHORT and LONG = duplex around that sheet edge
• T1 and T2 = exact source tray
• STANDARD = 600 dpi; HIGH = 1,200 dpi

Which stored profile should the technician apply?

Options:

• A. Apply the Meridian profile.

• B. Apply the Kestrel profile.

• C. Apply the Juniper profile.

• D. Apply the Linden profile.

Best answer: C

Explanation: The required profile must satisfy all four output properties. Landscape orientation uses LAND. Because the finished sheets are bound along their short edge, duplexing must use SHORT so the reverse side is oriented correctly when pages are turned. The heavy stock requires the exact source T2, rather than tray 1. Finally, the small labels require HIGH, the printer’s 1,200 dpi setting. Juniper is the only profile that combines these four values. A profile using long-edge duplexing may still print on both sides, but the back-side orientation will not match the specified binding edge.

• Long-edge duplexing turns sheets around the wrong edge for the specified short-edge binding.
• Default media settings select tray 1 and 600 dpi instead of the heavy-stock tray and highest quality.
• Portrait orientation does not produce the required landscape handout, even though the other settings match.

Question 90

Topic: Troubleshooting

An OLED monitor should show uniform color across the screen. After months of displaying a static dashboard, a faint toolbar outline appears.

A technician connects a known-good laptop and runs the monitor’s internal red, green, blue, and white test patterns. The outline remains in the same location after an overnight power-off. Its pixels change with each pattern but remain dimmer than surrounding pixels.

What is the most likely cause?

Options:

• A. Permanent burn-in from uneven pixel aging

• B. Dead pixels clustered along the toolbar outline

• C. Stuck pixels fixed on the toolbar’s former colors

• D. A source-generated artifact from the original computer

Best answer: A

Explanation: Burn-in results from uneven aging of display pixels that repeatedly showed a static image. The toolbar outline remains at the same panel location with a known-good source and the monitor’s internal test patterns, so the original computer is not generating it. The affected pixels still display red, green, blue, and white, but at reduced brightness, which indicates degraded output rather than complete pixel failure. Its persistence after an overnight power-off also supports permanent burn-in rather than temporary image retention.

Dead pixels would remain dark during the patterns, while stuck pixels would remain fixed on one color.

• Dead pixels would remain dark instead of changing color with every test pattern.
• Source artifact would not remain during the monitor’s source-independent internal test patterns.
• Stuck pixels would stay fixed on one color rather than follow each displayed test color.

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