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CISI IRT: Asset Classes

Try 10 focused CISI IRT questions on Asset Classes, with answers and explanations, then continue with Securities Prep.

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Topic snapshot

FieldDetail
Exam routeCISI IRT
IssuerCISI
Topic areaAsset Classes
Blueprint weight14%
Page purposeFocused sample questions before returning to mixed practice

How to use this topic drill

Use this page to isolate Asset Classes for CISI IRT. Work through the 10 questions first, then review the explanations and return to mixed practice in Securities Prep.

PassWhat to doWhat to record
First attemptAnswer without checking the explanation first.The fact, rule, calculation, or judgment point that controlled your answer.
ReviewRead the explanation even when you were correct.Why the best answer is stronger than the closest distractor.
RepairRepeat only missed or uncertain items after a short break.The pattern behind misses, not the answer letter.
TransferReturn to mixed practice once the topic feels stable.Whether the same skill holds up when the topic is no longer obvious.

Blueprint context: 14% of the practice outline. A focused topic score can overstate readiness if you recognize the pattern too quickly, so use it as repair work before timed mixed sets.

Sample questions

These questions are original Securities Prep practice items aligned to this topic area. They are designed for self-assessment and are not official exam questions.

Question 1

Topic: Asset Classes

An adviser is comparing two listed retailers. She wants a measure that reflects the total value of each business to both shareholders and lenders, so differences in borrowing are captured. Which valuation measure best matches this description?

  • A. Price/earnings ratio
  • B. Gearing
  • C. Enterprise value
  • D. Price to book ratio

Best answer: C

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: Enterprise value is the measure that looks at the value of the whole company to all providers of capital. That makes it more useful than equity-only measures when comparing businesses with different levels of debt.

The core concept is that enterprise value assesses the total value of a business, not just the market value of its shares. In practice, it is used when an adviser or analyst wants to compare companies whose financing structures differ, because higher or lower borrowing changes the value attributable to shareholders alone but does not change the need to consider the whole business.

A price/earnings ratio relates share price to earnings per share, and price to book compares market value with accounting net assets. Gearing measures financial leverage, not company value. The key distinction is that enterprise value adjusts the perspective from equity holders only to all capital providers.

  • Price/earnings ratio: this shows how highly the market values current earnings, but it is still an equity valuation measure rather than a whole-business measure.
  • Price to book ratio: this compares market value with net asset value on the balance sheet, so it does not directly capture total business value to lenders and shareholders together.
  • Gearing: this indicates the extent of borrowing in the capital structure, but it is a leverage measure, not a valuation measure of the whole firm.

It captures the value of the whole business, not just the equity, by incorporating debt as well as equity.


Question 2

Topic: Asset Classes

Which type of bond may be written down or converted into equity automatically if the issuer’s capital ratio falls below a stated trigger?

  • A. Subordinated bond
  • B. Contingent convertible bond
  • C. Standard convertible bond
  • D. Perpetual bond

Best answer: B

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: A contingent convertible bond, often called a CoCo, is a loss-absorbing instrument. Its key feature is that conversion to equity or principal write-down happens automatically when a pre-set trigger is met, usually linked to the issuer’s regulatory capital position.

The core concept is the difference between an ordinary convertible bond and a contingent convertible bond. A contingent convertible bond is typically issued by a bank or other financial institution and is built to absorb losses in stress conditions. If the issuer’s capital ratio falls below a stated trigger, the bond can be converted into equity or written down without the holder choosing to do so.

A standard convertible bond also has an equity-conversion feature, but conversion is usually on pre-agreed terms and is not primarily a regulatory loss-absorption mechanism. A subordinated bond is defined mainly by its lower ranking in insolvency, while a perpetual bond is defined mainly by having no fixed maturity date.

The trigger-based loss-absorption feature is what makes the contingent convertible distinct.

  • Standard convertible: this can convert into shares, but that is not the same as automatic loss absorption when a capital trigger is breached.
  • Subordinated debt: this ranks behind senior debt if the issuer fails, but subordination alone does not create a trigger-based conversion or write-down.
  • Perpetual debt: this may have no redemption date, but lack of maturity is different from automatic capital-triggered loss absorption.

A contingent convertible bond is designed to absorb losses if a specified capital trigger is breached.


Question 3

Topic: Asset Classes

A listed company announces a share buyback funded from surplus cash. Existing shareholders who keep their shares may benefit if the lower number of shares in issue supports earnings per share and the share price. Which main source of equity return does this best illustrate?

  • A. Capital growth from a corporate action
  • B. Liquidity risk
  • C. Liquidation risk
  • D. Dividend income

Best answer: A

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: A share buyback is a corporate action, and the benefit described for investors who keep their shares is mainly potential capital growth. The return is not coming from a cash dividend, difficulty trading the shares, or insolvency ranking.

The core concept is that a share buyback is a corporate action that can contribute to capital growth. When a company repurchases its own shares, the number of shares in issue falls. If profits are unchanged, earnings per share may rise, and the market may value the remaining shares more highly, so continuing shareholders may benefit through an increase in share price.

This is different from dividend income, where shareholders receive a direct cash distribution. It is also unrelated to liquidity risk, which is about how easily shares can be bought or sold, and liquidation risk, which concerns what ordinary shareholders may recover if the company fails.

  • Dividend confusion: dividend income is a cash payment to shareholders; the stem describes a price effect for holders who remain invested.
  • Liquidity mix-up: liquidity risk refers to low trading volume, wide spreads, or difficulty selling at a fair price, none of which is mentioned.
  • Insolvency mix-up: liquidation risk concerns recovery on winding up, where ordinary shareholders rank behind creditors and usually face high loss risk.

A share buyback is a corporate action that may increase return through a higher share price rather than through a direct cash dividend.


Question 4

Topic: Asset Classes

A retired client is choosing one UK share for the equity-income part of her ISA portfolio. She wants dependable natural income for at least five years and has limited capacity for loss. Which company profile is the best fit?

  • A. Yield 4.1%; cover 2.3x; gearing 16%; P/E 12
  • B. Yield 1.2%; cover 4.5x; gearing 10%; P/E 31
  • C. Yield 8.4%; cover 0.8x; gearing 82%; P/E 6
  • D. Yield 6.7%; cover 1.0x; gearing 64%; P/E 7

Best answer: A

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: For an income-focused client with limited capacity for loss, the best choice is not the highest yield but the most sustainable yield. A 4.1% yield backed by 2.3x dividend cover and low gearing is more suitable than higher-yield shares with weaker cover and heavier debt.

Dividend yield should be assessed alongside dividend cover and gearing. For a client drawing natural income, a very high yield can be a warning sign if profits barely cover the dividend or the company carries high debt, because any earnings setback may force a dividend cut. The profile with a 4.1% yield gives the best balance: 2.3x cover suggests earnings more than adequately support the dividend, and 16% gearing indicates relatively modest financial leverage. The very low-yield profile may look financially strong, but it does not meet the client’s income objective. The two high-yield profiles are less suitable because their dividends are weakly covered and supported by much higher gearing. Sustainable income matters more than the highest headline yield.

  • Headline yield trap: The 8.4% yield looks attractive, but 0.8x cover means earnings do not fully fund the dividend and 82% gearing adds financial risk.
  • Growth profile: The 1.2% yield and P/E of 31 are more consistent with a capital-growth share than a natural-income need.
  • Thin margin: The 6.7% yield provides more income now, but 1.0x cover and 64% gearing leave little protection if profits weaken.

This offers usable income, strong dividend cover and low gearing, making the dividend more sustainable for a lower-capacity-for-loss client.


Question 5

Topic: Asset Classes

Which option best matches a product that gives a retail client indirect exposure to a diversified bond portfolio, with a manager able to alter duration and credit exposure as interest-rate and credit conditions change?

  • A. An individual investment-grade corporate bond
  • B. An individual conventional gilt
  • C. A passive sterling corporate bond ETF
  • D. An actively managed strategic bond OEIC

Best answer: D

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: The best match is an actively managed strategic bond OEIC. It gives indirect exposure to many bonds and lets the manager change duration, sector mix and credit quality as market conditions change, which is different from both direct bond holdings and passive trackers.

The core concept is the difference between direct and indirect bond exposure, and between passive and active bond strategies. A strategic bond OEIC is a collective fund, so it can diversify across issuers, maturities and sectors. Because it is actively managed, the manager can shorten or extend duration when interest-rate expectations change, and can raise or lower credit risk as spreads and economic conditions shift.

A passive bond ETF also gives indirect diversified exposure, but its main aim is to track an index rather than make tactical duration or credit decisions. By contrast, an individual gilt or corporate bond is direct exposure to a single security with its own maturity, yield and issuer risk. The correct match is the option that combines diversification with active strategy flexibility.

  • Passive tracker: A sterling corporate bond ETF is diversified and indirect, but it normally follows its benchmark instead of actively repositioning duration and credit exposure.
  • Direct government bond: An individual conventional gilt is a single holding with a set maturity, so it does not provide broad diversification or manager-led tactical shifts.
  • Direct corporate bond: An individual investment-grade corporate bond adds issuer-specific risk and lacks the ongoing portfolio adjustments available in an active bond fund.

A strategic bond OEIC provides diversified indirect bond exposure and allows active changes to duration and credit positioning.


Question 6

Topic: Asset Classes

A UK client will need £50,000 for a house deposit in about three months, but the completion date could move forward. She says she cannot accept any loss of capital and wants the money kept in sterling. Which recommendation best applies the suitability principle?

  • A. Convert it to US dollars for a higher deposit rate
  • B. Place it in an instant-access GBP deposit account
  • C. Spread it across several peer-to-peer loans
  • D. Buy a sterling money market fund

Best answer: B

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: For a known short-term sterling liability, suitability is driven by capital security and access, not by chasing extra return. An instant-access GBP deposit best matches the client’s need for no capital loss, no currency risk, and quick availability.

The core principle is to match the investment solution to the client’s time horizon, liquidity need, and capacity for loss. Here, the client has a near-term house deposit to pay in sterling, may need the funds earlier than expected, and has said she cannot accept any capital loss. That points to cash on deposit in GBP with immediate access.

A sterling money market fund is generally low risk and liquid, but it is still an investment vehicle rather than a guaranteed cash deposit, so small price fluctuations are possible. Peer-to-peer lending adds credit risk and can limit access before loans mature. Converting to US dollars introduces exchange-rate risk even if the foreign deposit rate looks higher.

A sterling money market fund is the closest alternative, but it is less suitable when the client needs maximum certainty of nominal capital.

  • Money market fund: liquid and relatively low risk, but not the same as guaranteed cash when the client cannot accept any capital fluctuation.
  • Peer-to-peer lending: diversification across loans does not remove borrower default risk or guarantee fast access.
  • Foreign currency deposit: a higher headline rate can be offset by adverse exchange-rate moves when the liability is in sterling.

This best matches the need for capital security, sterling denomination, and immediate access for a known short-term liability.


Question 7

Topic: Asset Classes

A UK authorised property fund compares assets using adjusted first-year return = net initial yield + forecast rental growth - year-1 EPC upgrade cost. Assume tenant covenant and lease length are otherwise similar.

Exhibit:

PropertyNet initial yieldForecast rental growthYear-1 EPC upgrade cost
Urban logistics warehouse4.8%3.0%0.5%
Secondary office6.2%-2.0%3.5%
Prime supermarket unit5.1%1.2%0.8%
Shopping centre unit7.0%-1.5%2.0%

Which property should the fund prefer on this measure?

  • A. Secondary office
  • B. Urban logistics warehouse
  • C. Shopping centre unit
  • D. Prime supermarket unit

Best answer: B

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: The urban logistics warehouse gives the highest adjusted first-year return once both sector trend and sustainability cost are included. Its 4.8% yield plus 3.0% rental growth less 0.5% EPC spend equals 7.3%, which is above the other properties.

This tests property selection using both sector trends and ESG considerations. Forecast rental growth reflects expected occupier demand in each property segment, while the EPC upgrade cost captures the near-term sustainability spending needed to improve or maintain environmental standards.

  • Urban logistics warehouse: 4.8 + 3.0 - 0.5 = 7.3%
  • Secondary office: 6.2 - 2.0 - 3.5 = 0.7%
  • Prime supermarket unit: 5.1 + 1.2 - 0.8 = 5.5%
  • Shopping centre unit: 7.0 - 1.5 - 2.0 = 3.5%

The logistics asset ranks highest because positive rental momentum more than offsets its lower initial yield, and its EPC cost is modest. A high headline yield is less attractive when weak sector prospects or heavy retrofit costs reduce the true expected return.

  • Highest-yield trap: The shopping centre looks attractive on yield alone, but negative rental growth and a 2.0% EPC cost reduce it to 3.5%.
  • Office trap: The secondary office has the largest starting yield, yet falling rents and the highest retrofit cost leave only 0.7%.
  • Defensive retail trap: The prime supermarket is a solid candidate at 5.5%, but it still trails the logistics asset’s 7.3%.

It has the highest adjusted first-year return at 7.3% after allowing for rental growth and EPC upgrade cost.


Question 8

Topic: Asset Classes

A retail client is considering a 6% corporate bond priced at £105. It will redeem at £100 in five years, and he expects to hold it until maturity. To treat the client fairly, which explanation best reflects the bond’s likely overall return?

  • A. Coupon rate best reflects return, as the bond’s fixed income is the main driver of performance.
  • B. Running yield best reflects return, as it compares the annual coupon with the bond’s current price.
  • C. Gross redemption yield best reflects return, as it combines coupon income with the capital loss on redemption.
  • D. Capital return best reflects return, as the price will move from £105 to £100 by maturity.

Best answer: C

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: Because the bond is bought above par and held to maturity, the investor will receive both coupon income and a capital loss when it redeems at £100. Gross redemption yield is the most complete single measure because it reflects both parts of fixed-income return.

The key principle is to explain bond returns using the measure that matches the client’s intended holding period and gives a fair view of likely outcomes. Here, the client expects to hold the bond until redemption, so total return comes from two main sources: the 6% coupon income and the capital loss from paying £105 now but receiving only £100 at maturity. Gross redemption yield captures both elements in one annualised measure.

Running yield is useful for current income because it compares coupon with market price, but it ignores the pull to par at redemption. The coupon rate shows income based on nominal value only, and capital return on its own ignores the coupon stream. The closest distractor is running yield, but it is incomplete when redemption value will clearly affect the outcome.

  • Running yield only: This shows current income relative to market price, but it does not include the £5 capital loss at maturity.
  • Coupon rate only: This is based on nominal value and ignores the fact the bond was bought above par.
  • Capital return only: The fall from £105 to £100 matters, but total bond return also includes the coupon payments.

Gross redemption yield is the best single measure here because the client will receive coupons but also lose £5 of capital by redemption.


Question 9

Topic: Asset Classes

Sonia is investing £12,000 into a Stocks and Shares ISA for at least 10 years. She wants broad exposure to the UK equity market, is very sensitive to ongoing charges, and does not want to depend on an active manager outperforming. Which investment is the single best recommendation?

  • A. A FTSE All-Share index-tracking OEIC
  • B. A concentrated UK smaller companies fund
  • C. A geared UK equity investment trust
  • D. A portfolio of six FTSE 100 shares

Best answer: A

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: A low-cost UK index-tracking OEIC best matches Sonia’s objectives. It gives broad diversification across the market and aims to replicate benchmark returns, fitting her wish to avoid active-manager and stock-selection risk.

The key issue is choosing between passive and active equity exposure, and between direct shares and a pooled fund. Sonia wants broad UK market exposure, low ongoing charges, and no reliance on a manager’s ability to outperform. A FTSE All-Share tracker fits all three aims: it spreads risk across many UK shares, usually keeps charges low, and is intended to follow the index rather than beat it.

For a £12,000 investment, a pooled fund is also more practical than building a small direct-share portfolio, which would be relatively concentrated and incur dealing costs. The ISA wrapper removes most tax differences between the options, so the deciding factors are diversification, strategy, and cost. A geared structure would add risk she has not asked for.

  • A concentrated smaller companies fund is an active, higher-risk approach and does not give broad market exposure.
  • A six-share direct portfolio is too concentrated to represent the UK market well and can be inefficient on dealing costs.
  • A geared investment trust is still pooled, but gearing adds extra volatility and moves it away from simple benchmark-like exposure.

It offers broad UK market diversification at low cost and is designed to track the benchmark rather than rely on manager skill.


Question 10

Topic: Asset Classes

An adviser compares two 5-year bonds issued by the same company. Both are in GBP and have the same maturity.

BondIssuer ratingBond featureBond issue ratingGross redemption yield
AlphaBBBUnsecuredBBB5.8%
BetaBBBFully guaranteed by the parentA5.1%

Based on the exhibit, which statement is correct?

  • A. 70 bp; the guarantee is the same thing as the credit rating.
  • B. 70 bp; the guarantee is a credit enhancement reducing Beta’s issue risk.
  • C. -70 bp; Beta offers more yield because the guarantee increases risk.
  • D. 70 bp; the issuer’s own credit quality has risen from BBB to A.

Best answer: B

What this tests: Asset Classes

Explanation: The yield difference is 0.7%, which is 70 basis points. Beta’s parent guarantee is a credit enhancement, while the A rating is the agency’s assessment of that enhanced bond issue; the issuer itself still has a BBB rating.

The key distinction is between a credit rating and a credit enhancement. A credit rating is an agency’s opinion on creditworthiness, while a credit enhancement is a structural feature, such as a guarantee, that can improve the risk profile of a specific bond.

Here, the issuer remains rated BBB for both bonds, but Beta has a parent guarantee. That enhancement supports the bond issue, so the issue rating is higher at A. The yield difference is:

\[ \begin{aligned} 5.8\% - 5.1\% = 0.7\% = 70\text{ bp} \end{aligned} \]

Investors therefore accept a lower yield on Beta because the guaranteed bond is assessed as having lower credit risk than the unsecured bond. The closest trap is assuming the issuer itself was upgraded, but only the guaranteed issue has the higher rating.

  • Issuer vs issue: Treating the A rating as if the whole company moved from BBB to A ignores that the exhibit shows the issuer rating is unchanged.
  • Sign error: The yield difference is positive 70 bp when comparing Alpha minus Beta, not negative 70 bp.
  • Rating vs mechanism: A guarantee is a protective feature, not the rating itself; the rating is the opinion formed after considering that feature.

The yield gap is 0.7%, or 70 basis points, and the guarantee improves the bond’s issue-specific credit profile without changing the issuer rating.

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Revised on Thursday, May 14, 2026