Browse Certification Practice Tests by Exam Family

CISI Intro: Equities

Try 10 focused CISI Intro questions on Equities, with answers and explanations, then continue with Securities Prep.

On this page

Open the matching Securities Prep practice page for timed mocks, topic drills, progress tracking, explanations, and full practice.

Topic snapshot

FieldDetail
Exam routeCISI Intro
IssuerCISI
Topic areaEquities
Blueprint weight14%
Page purposeFocused sample questions before returning to mixed practice

How to use this topic drill

Use this page to isolate Equities for CISI Intro. Work through the 10 questions first, then review the explanations and return to mixed practice in Securities Prep.

PassWhat to doWhat to record
First attemptAnswer without checking the explanation first.The fact, rule, calculation, or judgment point that controlled your answer.
ReviewRead the explanation even when you were correct.Why the best answer is stronger than the closest distractor.
RepairRepeat only missed or uncertain items after a short break.The pattern behind misses, not the answer letter.
TransferReturn to mixed practice once the topic feels stable.Whether the same skill holds up when the topic is no longer obvious.

Blueprint context: 14% of the practice outline. A focused topic score can overstate readiness if you recognize the pattern too quickly, so use it as repair work before timed mixed sets.

Sample questions

These questions are original Securities Prep practice items aligned to this topic area. They are designed for self-assessment and are not official exam questions.

Question 1

Topic: Equities

Amira is considering an investment in a UK listed company through her stocks and shares ISA. She wants voting rights at the AGM and is willing to accept that, if the company is wound up, she will be paid only after creditors. She also wants returns to come mainly from variable dividends and capital growth. Which holding best fits her objectives?

  • A. Preference shares
  • B. Units in a UK equity OEIC
  • C. Corporate bonds
  • D. Ordinary shares

Best answer: D

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: Ordinary shares best match an investor seeking ownership rights and returns linked to company performance. They usually carry voting rights, and investors may benefit from dividends and share price growth, while ranking behind creditors on a winding up.

The core concept is residual ownership. Ordinary shares represent ownership in a company, so the holder will usually have voting rights at general meetings, may receive dividends if declared, and can benefit from capital growth if the company performs well. Those features fit Amira’s objectives: direct ownership, variable returns linked to business success, and acceptance of lower priority if the company fails.

Preference shares are still shares, but they are more associated with dividend preference and often limited voting rights. Corporate bonds make the investor a lender to the company, not an owner, so returns come mainly from interest rather than growth in ownership value. Units in a UK equity OEIC provide pooled exposure to shares, but the investor does not directly own this company’s shares or vote at its AGM.

The key distinction is direct shareholder ownership versus lending or indirect pooled exposure.

  • Preference income: Preference shares may have dividend priority, but they usually do not offer the same normal voting rights or residual upside sought here.
  • Lender, not owner: Corporate bonds rank ahead of shareholders and pay interest, so they do not match a desire for ownership rights.
  • Indirect exposure: A UK equity OEIC gives diversified share exposure, but not direct AGM voting rights in the underlying company.

Ordinary shares give direct ownership, usually carry voting rights, and offer returns through dividends and capital growth.


Question 2

Topic: Equities

A bond issue still has a single paper certificate, but it is lodged in a central securities depository and investors transfer their interests electronically between accounts. Which broad holding pattern does this describe?

  • A. Bearer title
  • B. Registered title
  • C. Dematerialised holding
  • D. Immobilised holding

Best answer: D

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: Immobilised holding applies when a physical certificate still exists but is held centrally and investors trade through electronic book entries. Dematerialised holding would mean no paper certificate exists at all, while registered and bearer title describe ownership form rather than the holding method.

The key concept is the difference between how a security is evidenced and how ownership is recognised. In an immobilised holding system, a physical certificate still exists, but it is locked away with a central securities depository or custodian, and trades settle electronically between accounts. That matches the situation in the stem.

Dematerialised holding goes one step further: there is no paper certificate at all, only electronic records. By contrast, registered title and bearer title describe the legal form of ownership, not whether a certificate remains in existence.

The presence of a paper certificate held centrally is the clue that this is immobilisation, not dematerialisation.

  • Registered title: this means ownership is recorded in the issuer’s register, not that a paper certificate is held centrally.
  • Bearer title: this depends on possession of the instrument, so it does not describe the electronic holding pattern in the stem.
  • Dematerialised holding: this would apply only if no physical certificate existed anywhere for the issue.

A paper certificate still exists, but transfers take place by electronic book entry, which defines immobilised holding.


Question 3

Topic: Equities

A UK retail client buys UK-listed shares through an online platform. After settlement, the confirmation shows the shares are held in the platform’s nominee account rather than in the client’s own name. She worries that this says something negative about the company. Which response best applies the relevant principle?

  • A. The platform is probably breaching FCA rules by not registering the client personally
  • B. The trade has probably failed, because only the investor can hold legal title after settlement
  • C. The client remains the beneficial owner; nominee registration is a normal custody arrangement
  • D. The shares are inherently riskier because direct registration was not used

Best answer: C

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: This is a post-trade holding-title issue, not an investment-analysis issue. In a nominee arrangement, the platform or its nominee is usually the registered holder, while the client remains the beneficial owner of the shares.

The core concept is the difference between legal title and beneficial ownership in UK custody arrangements. When shares are held through a platform’s nominee account, the nominee’s name may appear on the company register, but the client still owns the economic interest in the shares and is normally entitled to benefits such as dividends and sale proceeds through the platform. That means the scenario is about how title is recorded and administered after the trade, not about the company’s quality, valuation, or risk. A nominee structure is a normal post-trade arrangement for many retail holdings. The key takeaway is that the custody method does not, by itself, say anything negative about the underlying company.

  • Risk confusion: Using a nominee account does not make the underlying shares more speculative; it changes the custody method, not the issuer’s fundamentals.
  • Regulatory confusion: UK retail clients can legitimately hold investments through nominee arrangements, so personal registration is not required in every case.
  • Settlement confusion: A nominee can hold legal title after settlement, so the client not appearing personally on the register does not mean the trade has failed.

Nominee custody normally leaves legal title with the nominee while the client keeps beneficial ownership.


Question 4

Topic: Equities

In the clearing of a UK equity trade, a central counterparty becomes the buyer to the seller and the seller to the buyer. Which broad principle does this illustrate?

  • A. Maintenance of the share register by a registrar
  • B. Provision of dealing prices by a market maker
  • C. Counterparty risk reduction through interposition
  • D. Safekeeping of shares by a custodian

Best answer: C

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: A central counterparty reduces counterparty risk by standing between the original buyer and seller in the trade. This clearing function helps support settlement even if one original party fails.

The core concept is clearing through interposition. Once a trade is matched, the central counterparty effectively becomes the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer, so each participant faces the CCP rather than the original counterparty. This reduces bilateral counterparty exposure and supports orderly settlement.

In practice, the CCP helps manage default risk by:

  • replacing the original bilateral exposure
  • netting positions where applicable
  • applying margin and other risk controls
  • coordinating default management if needed

This is different from holding assets or recording ownership. The key pattern is risk reduction in clearing and settlement, not custody, registration, or price quotation.

  • Safekeeping by a custodian is about holding assets securely on behalf of clients, not stepping into the trade between buyer and seller.
  • Maintaining the share register is the registrar’s role, focused on legal ownership records rather than clearing exposure.
  • Providing dealing prices is a market-making activity that supports liquidity, not counterparty substitution after execution.

A CCP interposes itself between the original parties, reducing each side’s exposure to the other party’s default.


Question 5

Topic: Equities

A UK retail investor owns 900 shares in a company trading at 360p. The company announces a 1-for-3 rights issue at 300p, and she will take up her full entitlement to avoid dilution. Ignoring dealing costs and market movements, what is the theoretical ex-rights price per share?

  • A. 360p per share
  • B. 330p per share
  • C. 345p per share
  • D. 300p per share

Best answer: C

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: The theoretical ex-rights price is a weighted average of the old market price and the discounted rights price. Here, 900 shares at 360p plus 300 rights shares at 300p gives a total value of 414,000p over 1,200 shares, so the price is 345p.

A rights issue allows existing shareholders to buy extra shares, usually at a discount to the current market price. The theoretical ex-rights price is the blended price of the enlarged shareholding if the investor takes up the full entitlement.

  • Existing holding: 900 x 360p = 324,000p
  • New rights shares: 900 / 3 = 300 shares
  • Cost of new shares: 300 x 300p = 90,000p
  • Total value: 414,000p over 1,200 shares

So the theoretical ex-rights price is 414,000p / 1,200 = 345p per share. It is below 360p because the new shares are issued at a discount, but above 300p because most shares were already valued at the higher market price.

  • 300p: This uses only the rights subscription price and ignores the existing shares already valued at 360p.
  • 330p: This is a simple average of 360p and 300p, but the prices must be weighted because the issue is 1-for-3.
  • 360p: This assumes the rights issue has no pricing effect, but discounted new shares reduce the theoretical post-issue price.

A 1-for-3 issue gives 300 new shares, and (900 x 360p + 300 x 300p) / 1,200 = 345p.


Question 6

Topic: Equities

A UK technology firm plans to seek a London market listing next year. Its finance director says the aim is to attract a wider range of investors and improve liquidity for the shares once they are admitted. A trainee asks whether “listing” just means investors can start buying and selling the shares. What is the single best reply?

  • A. Listing is the company selling its own shares directly to investors in the secondary market.
  • B. Listing is market admission; trading is the later buying and selling of the shares.
  • C. Listing mainly gives the company a guaranteed share price set by the exchange.
  • D. Listing and trading are the same process, so the terms can be used interchangeably.

Best answer: B

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: The best answer distinguishes the two concepts correctly. Listing is the admission of a company’s shares to a recognised market or exchange, while trading is the ongoing buying and selling of those shares; companies often seek a listing to broaden investor access and support liquidity.

The core concept is that listing and trading are related but different. A listing is the formal admission of a company’s shares to a market, subject to that market’s requirements. Once listed and admitted, the shares can then be traded, meaning investors buy and sell them in the market.

Public companies seek listings for reasons such as wider access to capital, a broader investor base, enhanced profile, and improved liquidity in their shares. In the scenario, the finance director’s comments about attracting investors and improving liquidity point to those benefits of being listed, but they do not make listing and trading the same thing.

A common trap is to confuse market admission with the later secondary-market dealing that happens after admission.

  • Secondary-market confusion: Selling directly to investors in the secondary market is not what listing means; secondary-market trades normally occur between investors.
  • Same-term trap: Listing and trading are closely linked, but they are not interchangeable terms.
  • Price guarantee misconception: An exchange does not guarantee a company’s share price; prices move with supply, demand, and market expectations.

A listing admits the shares to the market, while trading is the subsequent dealing in those shares and is one reason companies seek a listing.


Question 7

Topic: Equities

A UK investor applies for shares in a company’s IPO. After listing, she buys more shares on the London Stock Exchange; the trade is matched, two business days later cash and securities are exchanged, and the holdings are kept in her broker’s nominee account. Which sequence best describes these events?

  • A. Primary-market issuance, secondary-market trading, clearing, custody, then settlement
  • B. Primary-market issuance, secondary-market trading, clearing, settlement, then custody
  • C. Primary-market issuance, secondary-market trading, settlement, clearing, then custody
  • D. Secondary-market trading, primary-market issuance, clearing, settlement, then custody

Best answer: B

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: The events follow the normal equity lifecycle. An IPO is a primary-market issue, buying listed shares on the exchange is secondary-market trading, clearing comes before settlement, and a broker’s nominee account provides custody.

The core concept is the sequence of equity issuance, trading, and post-trade administration. In an IPO, the company issues new shares to investors in the primary market. Once the shares are listed, any purchase on the London Stock Exchange between investors is a secondary-market trade. After execution, clearing comes first: the trade is matched and obligations are prepared. Settlement follows when cash and securities are actually exchanged. If the shares are then held in the broker’s nominee account on the investor’s behalf, that is custody.

The key trap is to confuse clearing with settlement, but clearing is the preparation stage and settlement is the completion stage.

  • Reversing the IPO and exchange purchase is wrong because new shares are first sold in the primary market before investors trade them in the secondary market.
  • Putting settlement before clearing reverses the normal post-trade order; matching and obligation processing happen before final exchange.
  • Placing custody before settlement confuses safekeeping in a nominee account with completion of the trade.

An IPO is primary-market issuance, exchange dealing is secondary-market trading, matching is clearing, cash-for-securities exchange is settlement, and nominee holding is custody.


Question 8

Topic: Equities

A UK broker is routing a retail client’s order in a liquid FTSE 100 share. The dealer wants the order to interact with other market participants’ buy and sell interests where possible, rather than depend on a dealer’s quoted price. Which statement best applies this principle?

  • A. An MTF cannot bring together multiple buyers and sellers under set rules.
  • B. Any order-driven venue guarantees a market maker will take unmatched orders.
  • C. A quote-driven market displays a central order book, so it best fits the dealer’s aim.
  • D. An exchange order book or MTF can match participant orders, while a quote-driven market relies on dealers’ prices.

Best answer: D

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: The broker wants a venue where the client’s order can meet other participants’ orders directly. That describes an order-driven market, and an MTF is also a multilateral venue, whereas a quote-driven market depends on dealers posting bid and offer prices.

The key distinction is how trades are arranged. In an order-driven market, participants’ buy and sell orders are brought together, often through a central order book, and trades occur when prices match. An MTF is also a multilateral system that brings together multiple third-party buying and selling interests under set rules, so it can suit the same objective. By contrast, a quote-driven market relies on dealers or market makers quoting bid and offer prices and standing ready to trade at those prices. For a liquid equity order where the goal is direct interaction with other market interest, the multilateral route is the better fit. The nearest trap is reversing the definitions of order-driven and quote-driven markets.

  • Treating a quote-driven market as a central order book swaps the two market models.
  • Saying an MTF cannot bring together multiple buyers and sellers ignores its multilateral purpose.
  • Assuming an order-driven venue guarantees dealer support confuses order matching with market-maker liquidity provision.

This matches the core distinction between multilateral order matching and dealer-made prices.


Question 9

Topic: Equities

Amir plans to invest his entire £15,000 ISA in ordinary shares of one small UK company. He believes that, because shareholders can vote at the AGM, the investment risk is limited. Which response best applies a sound investment principle?

  • A. Shareholders rank ahead of lenders in insolvency.
  • B. Voting rights do not remove issuer, price or liquidity risk.
  • C. Limited liability guarantees a quick sale near market price.
  • D. Ordinary shares suit investors needing capital security.

Best answer: B

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: Owning ordinary shares can give voting rights and possible dividends, but it does not protect an investor from loss. Putting all funds into one small company leaves exposure to issuer risk, share price falls, and possible difficulty selling if the shares are thinly traded.

The key principle is that shareholder rights are not the same as investment protection. An ordinary shareholder may vote at the AGM and may receive dividends, but neither the dividend nor the share price is guaranteed. If all the money is invested in one small company, risk is concentrated in that issuer: the business could perform badly, the share price could fall, or the company could fail. In addition, smaller-company shares may be less liquid, meaning there may be few buyers when the investor wants to sell.

Limited liability only means the shareholder cannot lose more than the amount invested in the shares. It does not make the investment low risk or easy to sell.

  • Insolvency ranking: Shareholders do not rank ahead of lenders; they are usually paid after creditors if anything remains.
  • Capital security: Ordinary shares are not designed for capital certainty, because both prices and dividends can move or stop.
  • Liquidity misunderstanding: Limited liability does not ensure an active market, so a quick sale at a fair price may not be possible.

Voting rights are a shareholder benefit, but they do not reduce the underlying issuer, price, or liquidity risks of a concentrated shareholding.


Question 10

Topic: Equities

An investor owns 600 ordinary shares. The company announces a 1-for-5 rights issue at £2 per new share. If the investor takes up the full entitlement, what will be the total shareholding and how much cash must be paid?

  • A. 720 shares and £240
  • B. 700 shares and £240
  • C. 750 shares and £300
  • D. 720 shares and £1,200

Best answer: A

What this tests: Equities

Explanation: A 1-for-5 rights issue means one new share for every five already held. On 600 shares, that gives 120 new shares, so the investor will hold 720 shares in total. The cash payable is 120 multiplied by £2, which is £240.

The key concept is that a rights issue gives existing shareholders the right to buy a stated number of new shares, based on their current holding, at the subscription price. Here, 600 shares with a 1-for-5 rights issue gives:

  • New shares: 600 ÷ 5 = 120
  • Total shares after taking up rights: 600 + 120 = 720
  • Cash required: 120 × £2 = £240

Only the new shares are paid for at the rights price. A common mistake is to apply the £2 price to all 600 existing shares, but the original shares are already owned.

  • Applying the price too widely: £1,200 wrongly charges £2 on 600 shares instead of only on the 120 new shares.
  • Misreading the ratio: 700 shares assumes only 100 new shares, which does not match a 1-for-5 entitlement on 600 shares.
  • Using the wrong entitlement: 750 shares and £300 would require 150 new shares, which fits a different issue ratio.

A 1-for-5 rights issue gives 120 new shares on 600 existing shares, and 120 × £2 = £240.

Continue with full practice

Use the CISI Intro Practice Test page for the full Securities Prep route, mixed-topic practice, timed mock exams, explanations, and web/mobile app access.

Open the matching Securities Prep practice page for timed mocks, topic drills, progress tracking, explanations, and full practice.

Free review resource

Read the CISI Intro guide on SecuritiesMastery.com, then return to Securities Prep for timed practice.

Revised on Thursday, May 14, 2026